LITTLE FLOWER CONVENT SCHOOL,DINANAGAR, PUNJAB.
 
 
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Class 10 Biology  

CHAPTER THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 

A.MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE

1.Pancreas

2.Thyroid

3.Diabetes insipidus

 B.Very short answer type

1. Name the following

(a) Adrenaline

(b) insulin shock

(c) insulin

(d) Isthmus

(e)Anti diuretic hormone (ADH)

(f) Adrenaline

2.Cretinism

3.Choose the odd one out from each series:

(a) Prostate, Exocrine gland others are endocrine glands.

(b)Scurvy,due to the deficiency of Vitamin C but others are diseases due to hypothyroidism.

(c)Cretinism, it is due to hypothyroidism in children but others are hormones

(d)Cortisone, It it is itself a hormone others are sources of  hormone.

5. Matching

      Columns 1.                Column 2

1 beta cells of islets.   1. Insulin

2. Thyroid.                     2. Thyroxine

3. Cretinism.                 3. Under secretion                                         of thyroxine         

4. Addison's disease.  4. Under secretion                                         of glucocorticoids

5 hyperthyroidism.      5. Exophthalmic                                             goitre

6. Myxoedema.            6.Condition due to                                         under secretion of                                         thyroxine in adults

7. Adrenaline.              7. Increases heart                                         beat

8. Cortisone.               8. Adrenal cortex       

6. Match the conditions in column A with the cause in column B    

       A(condition).                 B(cause)

(a) dwarfism and.            Hypothyroidism   Mental retardation         in a child     

(b) diabetes mellitus.     2. Excess of                                                     glucose in blood

(c) shortage of glucose 3. Insulin shock

      In blood

(d) Gigantism.                 4. Oversecretion                                         of growth hormone (e)enlargement of.      5. Oversecretion

breast in adult             of cortical 

males.                           hormones

(f) exophthalmic        6. Over secretion of 

goitre.                          Thyroxine

 

6. Identify the odd one in each of the following and mention what the rest are:

(a) larynx and others are hormones.

(b) penicillin and others are hormones

(c) adrenaline and other organs of digestive system.

(d) insulin and others are hormones secreted by pituitary gland.

(e) iodine and rest are are disorders caused due to hypothyroidism.

7. Suggest a suitable word for the fourth place

1. Glucagon

2. Myxodema

3. Gignantism

4. ADH

SHORT ANSWER TYPE:

1(a) diabetes mellitus

(b) simple goitre

(c) cretinism

(d) exophthalmic goitre

(e) Acromegaly

2. Write the exact location of each of the following glands:

(a) Thyroid:- it is situated in front of the neck just below the larynx.

(b)Adrenal:- it is situated above the kidneys.

(c) pancreas:-it is located behind the stomach in the upper left abdomen.

(d) pituitary gland:-it hangs from the base of the midbrain below hypothalamus. 

3. Name the following

(a) insulin ,glucagon and somatostatin

(b) mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids

(c) growth hormone ,prolactin ,adrenocorticotropic hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, follicle stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone.

(d) vasopressin and oxytocin.

(e) adrenaline

4. Write the main function of each of the following hormones:-

(a). Thyroxine:-it promotes tissue metabolism, growth and differentiation.

(b). Adrenaline:-it prepares the body to meet any emergency situation for fight and for flight.

(c)Insulin:- it promotes glucose uptake by body cells and stimulates deposition of extra glucose in liver as glycogen.

(d) Glucagon:- it stimulates liver to convert glycogen into glucose.

(e) Vasopressin:- it increases reabsorption of water from kidney tubules.

5 name the hormones responsible for the given functions:-

a. Oxytocin

b. Luteinizing hormone

c. Oxytocin

d.Testosterone

e. Adrenaline

 6. This happens under the effect of adrenaline secreted from adrenal medulla.

7. Filling the blanks in the table from 1 to 13

1. Thyroid

2. Regulates basal metabolism

3. Exophthalmic goitre

4. Simple goitre,cretinism or myxodema 

5. Insulin

6 insulin shock

7 hyperglycemia or diabetes mellitus

8. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland

9. Regulate the growth of whole body

10. Gigantism

11. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland

12.high blood pressure and excretion of concentrated urine

13. Diabetes insipidus.

8. Filling the blanks number 1 to 7

1. Thyroid

2. Thyroxine

3. Insulin

4. Adrenal

5. Adrenaline

6. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland

7. Promote secretion of thyroxine

9. Complete the following table by filling the blanks number 1 to 8

1 ovary

2.maintains the development of Graafian follicle and ovulation

3. Glucagon

4. Converts glycogen to glucose

5. Thyroid gland

6. Thyroxine

7. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland

8. Increase secretion of growth hormone

D. DESCRIPTIVE TYPE

1. Define the following terms:

(a) Endocrine system:-Endocrine system consists of several glands which bring about the overall common function of chemical coordination in the body.

(b) Hormones:-hormones are secretions from specific cells or glands in the body and are carried to all parts through blood.

(c) Myxodema:-it is a condition that affects an adult if his thyroid doesn't function properly .In this condition the person become sluggish with swelling of the face and hands.

2.Distinguish  between the following pairs:-

(a)endocrine glands pour their secretions directly into the blood while exocrineglands pour their secretions through ducts.

(b) hormones are chemical regulators while enzymes are proteins.

Hormones affects different organs while  enzymes act only on one kind of substance.

(c)Nervous control:-transmitted electrochemically through the nerve fibres and chemically across synapses.

Effect is only short lived.

Hormonal control:-transmitted chemically through blood and effect is short term or long lasting.

(d) Diabetes mellitus:-insufficient secretion of insulin causes diabetes mellitus.

Symptoms:-high concentration of sugar in blood and the person feels thirsty and there is loss of weight.

DIABETES INSIPIDUS:-deficiency of antidiuretic hormone causes diabetes insipidus in which urination is frequent and copiois and resulting in loss of water from the body and the person becomes thirsty. There is no sugar in urine.

(e) ADDISON'S DISEASE:-hypo secretion from adrenal cortex causes addison's disease.

        There is low level of sugar in the blood.

CUSHING SYNDROME:-hyper secretion from adrenal cortex causes cushing's syndrome.

     There is a high level of sugar in the blood.

Q3 GIVE REASON

(a) Adrenaline is a hormone which prepares the body to meet any emergency situation for fight or  for flight so extra energy and strength is provided to the body in that situation.

(b) Pituitary is called the master gland because it controls The functioning of all other endocrine glands.

(c)People living in low Himalayan Hilly areas often suffer from goitre because iodine is deficient in soil of hilly areas and hence in the food grown there.

(d)Simple goitre can be prevented by using iodized salt in food because it is due to insufficient quantity of iodine in food.

4.Yes, we agree with the statement that all hormones are chemical signals because chemically some hormones are peptides which are water soluble some are amines again water soluble and some are steroids derived from cholesterol whitch are lipid soluble.

E. STRUCTURED /APPLICATION /SKILL TYPE

Q1(a) 1. Alpha cells

            2. Beta cells

(b) Glucagon stimulates liver to convert glycogen into glucose.

        Insulin stimulates deposition of extra glucose as glycogen in liver and muscles.

(c) Pancreas is referred to as an exo endocrine gland because as a duct gland its secretion is poured into the duodenum for digestion and as a ductless gland it  has special groups of  hormone secreting cells called islets of langerhans.

(d) Because insulin is a chemically proteinaceous hormone .it gets digested by protein digestive enzymes. so it is injected into blood to increase its effect.

(e) Islets of langerhans

 (f) The pancreas is located in the abdomen behind the stomach.

Q2(a) In front of the neck just below larynx.

(b) 1_larynx

       2-thyroid gland

        3-trachea

(c).  1- helps in production of voice

         2- thyroid gland produces thyroxine to control basal metabolic rate of body.

         3- it is a passage for Air in respiratory tract.

(d) No

Q3(a) 1-pituitary gland

           2-thyroid gland

           3-adrenal gland

            4- pancreas

      (b) All are endocrine glands.

       (c) iodine

Q4(a) B

      (b) Hormone is secreted directly into the blood.

THINK AND CONNECT

Note:-Do it yourself.

 

Chapter The Excretory

A.MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE
1.Removal of nitrogenous waste
2.Proximal convoluted tubule
3.Sweating
4.Liver

B.VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1.Name the following
(a)Cortex
(b)Glomerulus
(c)Distal convoluted tubule
(d)Kidneys
(e)Kidneys
(f)Urochrome

2.TERMS IN CORRECT LOGICAL SEQUENCE
(a)Afferent arteriole,Glomerulus,Efferent arteriole,Secondary cappilary network,Renal vein
(b)Renal artery,kidney,ureter,urinry bladder,urethera

3.PICK OUT THE ONE ITEM WHICH OVERALL INCLUDES THE REMAINING FOUR
(a)Ultrafiltration
(b)Excretion
(c)Osmoregulation
(d)Excretion

4.NAME THE DISEASES DUE TO ABNORMAL CONSTIUENTS IN URINE
(a)Blood---------------Haematuria
(b)Glucose-------------Glycosuria
(c)Albumin-------------High blood pressure
(d)Bile pigments--------Anaemia,Hepatitis,Liver cirrhosis

C.SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1.WRITE DOOWN THE FUNCTIONAL ACTIVITY
(a)Ultrafiltration
(b) Pours urine in the pelvis of kidney
(c)Transports urine to urinary bladder
(d)Pass blood into the renal vein
(e)Helps in micturition

2.MATCH THE ITEMS
COLUMN I                                                           COLUMN II
(a)Bowman’s capsule                                       Glomerulus
(b)Contains more CO2 and less urea             Renal vein
(c)Antiduretic hormone                                   Regulates amount of water excreted
(d)Contains more urea                                     Renal artery      

3.FILL IN THE BLANKS
Blood,Glomerulus,Efferent Arteriole,Afferent Arteriole,Liquid,Glomerulus,Bowman’s Capsule

4.NAME THE FOLLOWING
(a)Ammonia,urea and Uric Acid
(b)Urea,Creatinine,Uric Acid
(c)Sodium chloride,Potassium Chloride,Ammonia
(d)Kidney,Ureter,Urinary bladder,Urethera
(e)Afferent Arteriole,Glomerulus,Efferent arteriole,PCT,Loop of henle,DCT,Collecting duct
(f)Ultrafiltration,Reabsorption,Tubular Secreation
(g)Blood,Ultrafiltrate,Urine


5.CHOOSE THE ODD ONE OUT                                                                                                                        
(a)Neuron is the odd one out and remaining others are the parts of human urinary system                
(b)  Excess sodium chloride is the odd one out and others are nitrogenous wastes.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

(c)Loop of henle is the odd one out and others are the parts of the kidney                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

(d) Pappila is the odd one out and others are the parts of the renal tubule.  

6.WRITE FULL FORMS
(a)PCT;Proximal convulated tubule
(b)DCT;Distal convuated tubule
(c)ADH;Antidiueretichormone
(d)ORS;Oral Rehydration Solution

7.WRITE THE EXACT LOCATION
(a)Kidney;It is located on either side of the backbone.
(b)Urineferous tubule;In the kidneys
(c)Malphigian capsule;In the cortex region of  kidney
(d)Loop of henle; In the medulla region of kidney

D.DESCRPTIVE TYPE
1.DEFINE THE FOLLOWING TERMS
(a)Excretion;The process of removal of chemical wastes from the body.
(b)Kidney;They are the primary excretory organs eliminating nitrogenous wastes from the blood and throwing it out in the form of urine.
(c)Micturion;The process of expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder through urethera is called micturition.
(d)Osmoregulation;The kidney while removing wastes like urea from the blood  also regulates its composition that is the percentage of water and salts.This function is called osmoregulation.

2.DIIFERENTIATE BETWEEN THE FOLLOWING PAIRS
(a)Bowmans capsule is a thin walled cup while bowmans capsule and the glomerulus together are called malpighianan capsule.

(b)Diueresis;Cause of Diuresis is reduced secreation of ADH and problem caused by diuresis is increased production of urine.
Uremia;Cause of uremia is accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the body and problem is that person may lead to death.

(c)RENAL CORTEX—It is the outer dark region of the kidney and gives a dotted appearance.
RENAL MEDULLA—It is the inner lighter region of the kidney.It gives a striped appearance.

(d)  RENAL PELVIS—The front end of the ureter is somewhat expanded  into the kidney and is called renal pelvis
RENAL PAPILLA—The apex of each pyramid projects into the kidney and is called renal papilla.

(e) UREA—It is the chief excretory product which is excreted in the form of urine
URINE—The filtrate left after reabsorption and tubular secretion is called urine.

(f)EXCRETION—It has no utility in the body as it is the passing out of the substances thar are hrmful for the body.
SECRETION—It is giving out by a cell or a gland some substance thst has some utility for the body.    

3.GIVE REASONS  
(a)Excretion is the process of removing waste products from the body of living organisms.When these toxic materials are not removed from the body they get mixed with the blood and can cause death of the person.That is why excretion is a necessary process in our body.
(b)Because if we donate one   kidney to a needy patient then the other kidney alone is sufficient for excretory needs and a person can lead a normal life.
(c)The reason is that in summers we loose a considerable part of water through perspiration and the kidneys have to absorb more water from the urine making it more concentrated.

4.Uriniferous tubule is the structural and functional unit of kidney.These are small minute  tubules present in the kidneys.
It contains the Bowmans capsule,proximal convulated tubule,loop of henle,distal convulated tubule and collecting duct in it.Their function is to take in impure blood from the renal artery and removes wastes in the form of urine.It also provides a large surface area for reabsorbtion of salts and water.

5.The kidney while removing wastes like urea from the blood also regulates its composition that is percentage of water and salts.This function is called osmoregulation.It implies the regulation of osmotic pressure of the blood.

6.ULTRAFILTRATION;The blood flows through the glomerulus under great pressure which is much greater than in the capilaries else where.The reason for his greater pressure is that efferent arteriole is narrower than the afferent arteriole.This high pressure causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the glomerulus into the renal tubule.This filtration under extra ordinary force is called ultrafiltration.

SELECTIVE ABSORPTION;The glomerular filtrate entering the renal tubule is not urine.It is an extremely dilute solution containing a lot of usefulmaterials including glucose and some salts such as those of sodium.As the filtrate passes down the tubule much of the water is reabsorbed together with the useful substances but their reabsorption is only to the extent that normal concentration of the blood is not disturbed.This is called selective absorption.

7.Artificial kidney is dialysis machine,The patient blood is led from the radial artery in his arm through the machine where the urea and excess salts are removed and the purified blood is returned to the vein in the same arm.
In case of permanent damage to the kidneys,dialysis is to be carried out.

E.STRUCTURED/APPLICATION/SKILL TYPE
1.(a)Longitudinal section
(b)1—Renal artery
2—Renal vein
3—Ureter
4—Renal cortex
5—Pelvis
(c)Renal cortex contains malpighian capsule.
Renal medulla contains pyramids
Pelvis contains freshly collected urine

2(a)urinary system and excretory system.
(b)1-Kidneys
2-Aorta
3.Ureter
4.Urinary bladder
(c)Nephron
(d)Urea and uric acid
(e)Ultrafiltration and selective absorption

3.(a)Glomerulus
(b)Efferent arteriole
(cAfferent arteriole
(d)Collecting tubule
(e)PCT
(f)Efferent arteriole is narrower than afferent arteriole
(g) Loop of henle

4.(a)EXCRETION;It is the removal of harmful and unwanted nitrogenous waste products from the body.
(b)Because both bowmans capsule and proximal convulated part lies in the cortex giving it a dotted appearance.
(c)Because medulla of the kidney is composed of a finely striped ubstance arranged in several conial pyramids.
(d)The blood vessel A(renal vein) contains deoxygenated blood and blood vessel B(renal artery)contains oxygenated blood

5.(a)Bowmans capsule
(b)1-Afferent arteriole
2-Glomerulus
3-Bowmans capsule
4-Efferent arteriole
(c)Ultrafiltration and selective absorption
(d)Ultrafiltration(definition already done)jf

 History class 10 chapter 3

Structured questions
1.The period from 1885 to 1905 was dominated by the Early Nationalists. In this context answer the following questions: 
(a) To which segment of society they belonged? 
(b) What were their demands? 
(c) What methods did they adopt? 
Ans- (a) In its initial years the Congress was led by a group of leaders known as the Early Nationalists. The members of this group were drawn from the educated middle class consisting of professionals like lawyers, barristers, teachers and officials, who drew inspiration from Western Liberal and redical thought.
(b) (i) Abolition of India Council, 
(ii) Expansion of the Legislative Council and Legislative Assemblics-both at the Centre and in the Provinces. 
(iii) Adequate representation of Indians in the Exccutive Council of the Viceroy and those of the Governors.
(c) First Set of Methods: Their first objective was to educate people in India in modern politics, to arouse national political consciousness.
For this purpose, they relied on the following methods: (i) They held meetings where speeches were made and resolutions for popular demands were passed. (ii) They made use of the press to criticise government policies. (iii) They sent memorandums and petitions to government officials and the British Parliament.
Second Set of Methods: The second objective of the Early Nationalists was to influence the British government.To achieve this objective, they followed the following methods: (i) They made use of three P's i.c. Petitions, Prayers and Protests. (ii) A British Committee of the Indian National Congress was set up in London in 1889. (iii) Deputations of Indian leaders were sent to Britain.
2. The Early Nationalists were practical and wanted to win freedom by a gradual process. Critically examine the contribution of the Early Nationalists using the following
 (a) Exposing the true nature of British rule.
(b) Arousing political consciousness among the people. (c) Laying the foundation of the national movement. 
Ans- (a) under the heading " achievements of the early nationalists" it's 3rd point  page 38.
(b) same Heading it's 1st point.  Page 38.
(c) i. The Early Nationalists created national awakening among people that they belonged to one common country-India.
ii. The Early Nationalists trained people in politics by popularising the ideas of democracy, civil liberties, secularism and nationalism.
iii. They made people realise the economic content and character of British imperialism. By doing so, they weakened the foundations of the British rule in India.
iv. Their political and economic programmes established the truth that India must be ruled in the interest of the Indians.
3. The Early Nationalists initially believed that the British wanted to be just to India but were unaware of the real state of affairs. In this context, answer the following questions: 
(a) What was the attitude of these leaders towards the British?
 (b) Why did they develop such an attitude?
 (c) How did they expose the true nature of British rule in India?
Ans- a. They asked for constitutional and other reforms within the framework of the British rule as they had faith in the British sense of justice and fair play. They believed that continuation of the British connection with India was in the interest of both England and India. They concerned themselves with the demand for reforms.
(b).  i. The Early Nationalists had faith in the sense of justice, fair play, honesty and integrity of the British, 
ii. It was their hope that the British would grant Home Rule' to Indians. 
iii. They believed that the British rule had many benefits. For example, it aided in cleansing social ills like sati, untouchability and child marriage.
c. Same as 2nd question it's (a) part
 4.The methods of the Early Nationalists were criticised as inadequate and half-hearted. In this context, briefly describe the following: 
(a) Nature of their methods.
 (b) Reasons for the partial failure of their methods.
 (c). The final outcome of their efforts. 
Ans- (a)  under the heading "criticism of the early nationalists" it's 1st point full.
(b)  i.They failed to realise that British and Indian interests clashed with each other. Britain was using India's resources to increase its wealth. 
ii. The Early Nationalists failed to draw the masses into the mainstream of the national movement. Their area of influence was limited to the urban educated Indians.
(c) same as 2nd question (c) part.

5. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, the political mentor of Gandhiji, was one of the most popular Early Nationalist leaders. In this context, answer the following:
 (a) State two of the policies of the imperial regime which were opposed by Gokhale. 
(b) What role did he play as a member of Imperial Legislative Council? 
(c) How did he try to arouse national awakening? 
Ans- (a) i) incurring huge expenditure on the British army.
 (ii) adopting the policy of racial discrimination in appointments to high posts.
(b) page 40. Under the heading "his contribution" , it's 3rd point "roal as member of imperial legislative council" it's any three points.
(c) He made strong plea for the reform of the idauisislative Councils and separation of judiciary from the executive.
 • He played an important role in the passage of Minto-Morley Reforms. • He also served as a member of the Indian Public Service Commission and urged it to increase the share of Indians in higher services.
 During his visit to England he tried to persuade the British statesmen not to give effect to the Partition of Bengal. 
 6. Surendranath Banerjee is popularly known as the Father of the Indian Nationalism'. this context, answer the following:
 (a) What was India's political goal according to Banerjee? 
(b) What were the methods he advocated to attain it?
 (c) What was his contribution to India's freedom struggle? 
Ans- (a) Banerjee edited a newspaper, Bengalee, which served as a powerful medium for mobilising public opinion. His book, Nation in the Making, gives_an account. his political concern and his views about self-government.   (b) He advocated use of constitutional methods for the attainment of India's goals. His famous saying was, "Opposition where necessary, co-operation where possible.'
(c) Banerjee started agitation against the Licence Act, Arms Act, Vernacular Press Act and against lowering the age from 21 to 19 years to appearin the I.C.S. Examination. He opposed the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 which introduced separate electorates for the Hindus and the Muslims. He also opposed thedivision of Bengal by Lord Curzon in 1905.

III. Picture Study Identify the person in the picture and mention his contribution to India's freedom struggle under the following heads: (a) His views about the nature of British imperialism.
(b) His achievement in strengthening Indian nationalism. (c) His views on the cause of poverty in India.
Ans- (a)     Dadabhai Naoroji was initially the first Person in India to describe British rule in the prospect of the Drain of Wealth theory.   
(b)  Banerjee started agitation against the Licence Act, Arms Act, Vernacular Press Act and against lowering the age from 21 to 19 years to appearin the I.C.S. Examination. He opposed the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 which introduced separate electorates for the Hindus and the Muslims. He also opposed the division of Bengal by Lord Curzon in 1905.
(c) As an economic thinker, he came to the conclusion that the root cause for the economic ills of India was the exploitation of India by the British. Dadabhai's views on Indian economy are given in his work entitled 'Poverty and Un- British Rule in India'. His famous Drain Theory'. explained how India's wealth was being 'drained' to England through various ways.

CHAPTER 4

Structured Questions

 1. One of Lord Curzon's administrative measures that resulted in a strong resentment from the masses was the Partition of Bengal in 1905. In this context, answer the following questions:
 (a) What was Lord Curzon's argument in favour of the Partition of Bengal? How did the nationalists interpret Lord Curzon's motives? 
(b) How did the people react to the Partition of Bengal? 
Ans- (a) The main motive for the Partition of Bengal, according to the British rulers, was administrative necessity. They said that the province of Bengal was too big to be efficiently administered by a single provincial government.
(b) The Indian nationalists clearly saw the design behind the Partition and condemned it. They saw that it was a deliberate attempt to divide the Bengalis on religious and territorial grounds and thereby, disrupt and weaken nationalism in Bengal. They felt that administrative efficiency could have been better secured by separating Hindi-speaking Bihar and the Odiya-speaking Odisha from the Bengali-speaking part of the province. Moreover, the manner in which the announcement of partition was made without any regard for the public opinion, hurt the sentiments of sensitive Bengalis.

2 With reference to the Surat Split of 1907, answer the following questions:
 (a) What were the issues on which the two wings of the Congress had differences of opinion?
 (b) How did the British exploit the differences between the Early Nationalists and the Assertive Nationalists?
 (c) What was the effect of the split between the two wings of the Congress on the National Movement? 
Ans-(a) i. The Assertive Nationalists wanted to extend the Swadeshi and boycott to the rest of India.The Early Nationalists, however, did not approve it.
ii. There was also a disagreement over the candidature of the next President. Finally, Dadabhai Naoroji, who was respected by both the groups, became the President in 1906.
iii. in the next session in 1907 at Surat. The Assertive Nationalists proposed the name of Lala Lajpat Rai as President of the Surat Session. The Early Nationalists proposed the name of Rashbehari Ghosh
(b) The split in the Congress was unfortunate because it gave an opportunity to the British to exploit the situation to their advantage. They adopted a policy of 'concession and repression- concession for the Early Nationalists as well as- the Muslims and repression to the Assertive Nationalists.
(c) The Surat Split also weakened the national movement. The Early Nationalists, however, were largely able to capture the Congress organisation and in the Allahabad convention, held in April 1908, the split was formalised.

3. In the second phase of the national movement, there emerged a new younger group of leaders within the Congress who did not agree with the old leadership. In this context, answer the following questions: 
(a) Differentiate between the Early Nationalists and the Assertive Nationalists in their objectives and achievements, stating one objective and two achievements of each wing of the Congress. 
(b) Name the Assertive leader known as the forerunner of Gandhiji. Why is the person known as the forerunner of Gandhiji? 
(c) Explain how the repressive policies of Lord Curzon and influence of International events led to the Assertive nationalism. 
Ans- (a) Early Nationalists
                Objectives
i . The Early Nationalists wanted to achieve self-government and they strove for autonomy within the Empire and not for absolute independence.
Assertive Nationalists 
The Assertive Nationalists aimed at nothing short of Swaraj as it existed in the United Kingdom.
         Achievements
Early nationalists:-
Repeal of the Arms Act and Licence Act.
Spread of primary education among the masses.
Assertive Nationalists:-
 They gave new slogans to the Indian nationalist movement like 'non-cooperation, passive resistance, mass agitation, and self-reliance'.
 They spoke, wrote and edited newspapers in vernacular languages and thus, succeeded in conveying their message to a large number of people.
(b) Tilak was the forerunner of Mahatma_Gandhi in a number of ways. First, Tilak's idea of Swaraj was akin to Mahatma Gandhi's idea of complete independence. Second, Tilak sought close contact with the masses as Mahatma Gandhi did. Third, Tilak preached the idea of Swadeshi, Boycott and Prohibition. These ideas were preached and followed by Mahatma Gandhi later on. Fourth, Tilak had to suffer several terms of imprisonment for the sake of the country, an example followed by Mahatma Gandhi and other nationalist leaders.
(c) -(i) the Act of 1898 which made it an offence to provoke people against the British; (ii) The Calcutta Corporation Act (1899) which reduced the strength of elected members from India, thereby giving the British a majority; (iii) the Official Secrets Act; (iv) The Indian Universities Act of 1904.
Assertive nationalism was inspired by the examples of international events. For the first time, Japan, an Asian country, defeated Russia. Italian forces were defeated by the Abyssinians in Ethiopia.
4. With reference to the causes for the rise of Assertive Nationalism in the Congre describe briefly: 
(a) The true nature of the British rule. 
(b) International events.
 (c) Ill-treatment of Indians.
Ans- (a) The efforts made by the Early Nationalist leaders through their writings, agitation and petitions to the British government, exposed the true character of the British rule in India. It was felt that the British rule was responsible for the economic ruin of India and her growing poverty.
(b) Assertive nationalism was inspired by the examples of international events. For the first time, Japan, an Asian country, defeated Russia. Italian forces were defeated by the Abyssinians in Ethiopia.
(c) Indians helped the British to develop their colonies in other parts of the world. But everywhere, especially in South Africa, Indians were subjected to racial discrimination. They were denied the right to vote and could not enter the hotels, clubs, buses or railway coaches reserved for the Whites. The discriminatory treatment meted out to the Indians in British colonies was resented by the Indians and led to the rise of Assertive Nationalism.
 5. Tilak said Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'. In this context, describe: 
(a) His political beliefs. 
(b) Means he employed to arouse nationalistic passions.
 (c) Ways in which he was the forerunner of Gandhi. 
Ans- (a) i. Tilak was Ithe first to openly declare the demand for Swaraj. "Swaraj is my birth right," he said, "and I shall have it". 
ii. He started two newspapers-Mahratia (English) and Kesari (Marathi.
iii. Tilak set up a Home Rule League at Pune in 1916 to attain self-government within the British Empire by constitutional means.
(b) In 1893, Tilak started using the traditional religious Ganapati festival to propagate nationalist ideas through songs and speeches. In 1895 he glorified Shivaji and started the Shivaji festival to encourage young Maharashtrians. He started two newspapers-Mahratia (English) and Kesari (Marathi).
(c) same as 3rd question part (b).
6. Bipin Chandra Pal was said to be "One of the mightiest prophets of nationalism In this context:
 (a) Mention his political aims.
 (b) State his ideas on National Education.
 (c) What remedies did he propose to cradicate India's poverty and unemployment? 
Ans- (a) He stressed the need to develop indigenous industries in the country; he preached the use of Swadeshi and the Boycott of foreign goods to eradicate poverty and unemployment.
As a journalist he worked for Bengal Public Opinion, The Tribune and New India to propagate his brand of nationalism.
(b) Bipin Chandra wanted National Education to be the basis of the freedom movement. It would arouse nationalistic passions and become an effective instrument of social progress.
(c) (i) To establish equality in society, he wanted to tax the rich more heavily than the poor; (ii) He demanded forty-eight hours of work in a week and an increase in the wages. Bipin Chandra Pal died in 1932.
I. Picture Study
(A) (B) 
(a) Identify the persons 'A' and B' given above. To which section of the Congress did each belong and what were their ultimate objectives?
 (b) Highlight three different methods of struggle adopted by cach section of the Congress.
 (c) State the contribution of the person 'B' in the freedom struggle.
Ans- (a)  A.Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
A. Belonged to Early Nationalists
B. Belonged to Assertive Nationalists 
Objectives
i . The Early Nationalists wanted to achieve self-government and they strove for autonomy within the Empire and not for absolute independence.
Assertive Nationalists 
The Assertive Nationalists aimed at nothing short of Swaraj as it existed in the United Kingdom.
(b) Methods of Early Nationalists
The Early Nationalists relied on constitutional and peaceful methods and avoided violence and confrontation. They made use of three P's i.e., Petitions, Prayers and Protests to achievo their objectives.

Methods of Assertive Nationalists
iv) Passive Resistance (i) Swadeshi; (ii) Boycott; (iii) National Education.
(c) He joined the Congress in 1888 and remained its worker till the end of his life. He joined the Assertive Nationalists in 1907. He carried on agitation against the agrarian policy of the British government. He was arrested and deported along with Sardar Ajit Singh to Mandalay. Lalaji supported workers' movements and in 1920 became the first president of the All India Trade Union Congress.
In 1928 while leading a procession at Lahore against the Simon Commission he was injured in a lathi charge.

 

Class X HISTORY

Structured questions ( based on previous years book)

Ch-2

Structured questions
1. Various factors led to the rise and growth of nationalism in India in the 19th century In this context, explain the role of each of the following 
(a) Socio-religious reform movements.
 (b) Repressive Colonial Policies. 
(c) The Press. 
Ans-(a) The socio-religious reform movements of the 19th century were great pioneers of Indian nationalism. In the social sphere, these movements worked for the abolition of caste system, child marriage, dowry system, purdah system, sati and infanticide. They launched a crusade against social and legal inequalities. In the religious sphere these reform movements combated religious superstitions, attacked idolatry, polytheism and hereditary priesthood. These movements fought for individual liberty and social equality.
(b) (i) Lord Lytton introduced the Vermacular Press Act (1878). The Vernacular Press Act forbade vernacular papers to publish any material that might. excite feelings of dissatisfaction against the British Government. This Act was not applicable to English newspapers. 
(ii) The Indian Arms Act of 1878 made it a criminal offence for Indians to carry arms without licence. This Act was not applicable to the British.
 (iii) The maximum age limit for the Indian Civil Service examination was reduced from 21 to 19 years, thus, making it difficult for the Indians to compete for it.
These repressive policies of the British provided a stimulus to political agitation and quickened the pace of Indian nationalism.
(c) (i) It was through the press that the message of patriotism and modern liberal ideals of liberty, freedom, equality, home rule and independence, spread among the people. 
(ii) The press carried on daily criticism of the unjust policies of the British Government in India and exposed the true nature of British rule in India.
 (iii) It made possible the exchange of views among different social groups from different parts of the country.
 (iv) It made Indians aware of what was happening in the world. This awareness helped them to understand the political and social development of the outside world.

2.With reference to Nationalism and the birth of the Indian National Congress, expla each of the following
 (a) Vernacular Press Act, 1878. 
(b) State any two immediate objectives of the Indian National Congress. 
(c) Role of Dadabhai Naoroji.
Ans- (a) Lord Lytton introduced the Vermacular Press Act (1878). The Vernacular Press Act forbade vernacular papers to publish any material that might. excite feelings of dissatisfaction against the British Government. This Act was not applicable to English newspapers. 
(b) any two aims of the Indian national Congress  ( page 30)
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji, the Grand Old Man of India, was of the opinion that the British were basically just and good. He wanted to place the true state of affairs the problems of the Indians may be resolved. The association had its branches in Mumbai, in India before the people of England so that Kolkata and Chennai.
 3. The establishment of the Indian National Congress was a significant event in the development of national movement in India. In this context: 
(a) Mention the year when it was established and its founder. 
(b) Why did Lord Dufferin favour the formation of the Indian National Congress?
 (c) Name any two associations which acted as the forerunners of the Indian National Congress.
 (a) 1885 A.O. Hume
(b) The Viceroy, Lord Dufferin, favoured the formation of the Congress because he wanted it to act as a 'safety-valve' for popular discontent, thereby, safeguarding the British interest in India.
(c) East India Association
The East India Aaaociation wan founded in London in 1866 by Dadabhai Naoroji.
The Indian Association was meant to be an All-India Movement. It was headed by Surendranath Banerjee.
III. Picture Study 
(a) Identify the person in the given picture name the organisation formed by him.
 (b) Mention his contribution to the growth of Indian National movement. 
(c) How did the socio-religious reform movements of the 19th century act as pioneers of Indian Nationalism?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
Brahmo Samaj 1828.
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy inaugurated the modern age in India. He was the father of Indian Renaissance and the prophet of Indian Nationalism.
Rammohan Roy was against the rigidity of the caste system. He started a campaign for the abolition of sati and purdah system, condemned polygamy, discouraged child marriages and advocated the right of widows to remarry. It was because of the efforts made by Rammohan Roy that, William Bentinck, the Governor-General of India, passed a law in 1829 making the practice of Sati illegal and punishable by law.
(c) same as 1. Question it's (a) part.

Ch-1

 1.There were many causes for the uprising of 1857 In this context, state the following 

a) Policy of economic exploitation 

b) Racial discrimination 

(c) Social Causes 

Ans- (a) Agricultural India was made an economic colony to serve the interests of industrial England. India was forced to export, at cheaper rates, raw materials like raw cotton and raw silk that the British industries needed urgently; plantation products (like indigo and tea); and food grains which were in short supply in Britain.

(b) The British officers were rude and arrogant towards the Indians. They believed that they were superior to Indians and followed a policy of contempt towards the Indians. They dubbed the Muslims as cruel and unfaithful. Some European officers ill-treated and insulted Indians. Such acts of unjust discrimination alienated the British from the Indian masses.

(c) 1.Interference with Social Customs:- reforms like the abolition of Sati (1829), the introduction of the Widow Remarriage Act (1856)-and the opening of Western education to girls were not welcomed by the masses.

2. Apprehensions about Modern Innovations:- People were suspicious of introduction of modern innovations like railways and telegraphs. There were rumours that telegraph poles were erected to hang those who were against the British

3. corruption in Administration:-The police and petty officials were corrupt. The rich got away with crime but the common man was looted, oppressed and tortured.

 

2. Economic exploitation of the country produced discontent, resentment and resistance among the people that culminated in the Great Uprising of 1857 Examine this factor with reference to the following 

(a) The ruin of trade and handicrafts 

(b) Impoverishment of the cultivators 

(c) Subordination of Indian economy to Britiah interests (Making India an Agricultural Colony of British capitalism)

Ans- (a) Heavy duties on Indian silk and cotton teztiles in Britain destroyed Indian industries. the other hand, British goods were imported into India at a nominal duty. By the middle of the 19th century, export of cotton and silk goods from India practically ceased The art of spinning and weaving, which for ages had given employment to thousands of artisans, became extinct.

(b) it was the peasantry that bore the heavy burden of taxes to provide money for the trade of the Company, for the cost of administration and the wars of British expansion in India. For example, in Bengal, the land revenue was double the amount collected under the Mughals. Not even a part of this revenue was spent on the development of agriculture or on the welfare of the cultivator.

(c) the British deprived the artisans of their income and reduced the avenues of employment for labour. On the other hand, export raw materials and food grains deprived India of agricultural surplus and raised the prices of raw materials. Thus, the change in the nature of India's trade became an instrument for exploiting India's resources.

 3. The Great Outbreak of 1857 brought about important changes in the character of Indian administration and the future development of the country In this context discuss: 

a. The changes introduced in the administrative set-up of the British territories in India.

(b) The changes in the Army 

Ans- (a) 1. End of the Company's Rule: 

The most significant result of the uprising of 1857 was the end of the rule of the East India Company and assumption of the Government of India directly by the Crown/ This was done by the Government of India Act of 1858 which had the following provisions:

(i) It transferred the power govern India from the East India Company to the British Crown.

ii) Now the power was to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, aided by a Council.

(iii) Secretary of State's salary and allowances were to be paid out of the revenues of India. 

(iv) Actual governance was to be carried on, as before, by the Governor-General who was also given the title of Viceroy or Crown's personal representative. Lord Canning was the first Viceroy under this Act. 

(v) Appointments to the civil service were to be made by open competition under rules made by the Secretary of State. 

(b) (i) The strength of European troops in India was increased The ratio of European to Indian troops was fixed at 1:2 (Bengal army) and 2:5 (Madras and Bombay armies).

(ii) European troops were kept in key geographical and military positions.

 (iii) The earlier policy of excluding Indians from the officer corps was strictly maintained.

(iv) In order to discourage nationalism measures such as introduction of caste and community in most regiments were taken

 (v) Discrimination on the basis of caste, region and religion was practised in the recruitment to the army.

4. Although the First War of Independence of 1857 failed it had important consequences for India. In this context, answer the following questions 

(a) How did the uprising give rise to nationalism in India?

 b) How did the end of the East India Company's rule bring in grave economic perils in India? 

(C) State how the British Government tried to pacify the feelings of Indians with regard to:

 i)  their religious practices; (ii) the Princely States. 

Ans- (a) The uprising of 1857 was the first struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British imperialism. It paved the way for the rise of the national movement. The sacrifices made by revolutionaries like Rani Laxmi Bai, Nana Saheb and Mangal Pandey served as a source of inspiration for the future freedom fighters.

(b) (i) India was turned into a typical colonial economy, exporting raw material and importing finished goods. (ii) The salary and allowances of the Secretary of State and members of the India Council, the civil servants and military officers were a large drain on the country's resources.

(iii) Rural artisan industries such as handicrafts, spinning and weaving collapsed.

(c) i. The proclamation promised -that the Government of India would– A follow a policy of non-intervention in social of and religious matters of Indians, treat all subjects-Indians and Europeans- as equals.

ii. Some of the Indian princes had remained loyal to the British and had helped them in suppressing the uprising. Their loyalty was rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.

III. Picture Study the picture and answer the following questions 

(a) Identify the person the picture and, name the proclamation

 ( b) Where and by whom was this proclamation made public? 

(c) To whom was the control of governance of India transferred State any three features of this proclamation.

(a) queen Victoria

It was the Queen Victoria' s proclamation.

(b) It was made public at Allahabad, on November 1, 1858, by Lord Canning, the first Viceroy of India.

(c) the control of governance of India was transferred to the British crown

Features:- (i) A follow a policy of non-intervention social and religious matters of Indians; 

(ii) treat all subjects-Indians and Europeans- as equals (education and ability would be the basis of all appointments);

(iii) do its best to advance the industries in India.

Class X   Physics   Chapter 7    Sound    Exercise 7 (A) Sound

Q1. What are mechanical waves?
Ans:- The waves which require medium to transfer energy are called mechanical waves.

Q2. Define the following terms in relation to a wave:

Ans:- (a) Amplitude :The maximum displacement of the particle of medium on either side of its mean
position is called the amplitude (a) of the wave.
(b) Frequency:The number of vibrations made by the particle of the medium in one second is called
the frequency (f)of the waves.
(c) Wavelength:The distance travelled by a wave in one time period of vibration of the particle of
the medium is called wavelength.
(d) Wavevelocity:The distance travelled by the wave in one second is called the wave velocity (V).
Q3.
Ans:- (1) Wavelength (2) Frequency

Q4.
Ans:- (1) Elasticity (2) Density

Q5.
ns:- Lightwaves: Sound waves
(1) They can travel in vacuum. They cannot travel in vacuum.
(2) These are the electromagnetic waves. These are the mechanical waves.
Q6.
Ans:- The return of a sound wave on striking a surface such as wall, metal sheet etc.Back in the
same medium is called reflection of sound.The condition for reflection of a sound wave is that the
size of the reflecting surface must be bigger than the wavelength of the soundwave.
Megaphone(or speaking tube) is the device in which reflection of sound wave is used.
Q7.
Ans:- The sound heard after reflection from a distant obstacle ( such as a cliff,a hillside,wall of a
building,edge of a forest,etc.) after the original sound has ceased,is called an echo.
Conditions for echo are:
(1) The minimum distance between the source of sound and the reflector in air must be 17 m.
(2) The size of the reflector must be large as compared to the wavelength of the sound wave.
Q8.
Ans:- No,the man will not hear the echo as the sensation of a sound persists in our ears for
about 0.1 second after the exciting stimulus ceases to act.
As t=2 d/v
=2x12/340=24/340=0.07<0.1 second.
Q9.
Ans:- The applications of the echo are :
(1) In medical field,echo method of ultrasonic waves is used for
imaging the human organs (such as liver,gall bladder,uterus,womb,etc.)This is called ultrasonography.
Similarly echo cardiography is used to obtain the image of human heart.
(2) Dolphins detect their enemy and obstacle by emitting the ultrasonic waves and hearing their echo.
They use ultrasonic waves for hunting their prey.

Q10.
Ans:- The sound has to travel from the source of sound to the reflector and back from the reflector to
the source of sound to hear an echo.If d is the distance between the source and reflector,then
the total distance travelled is 2d and the time taken can be taken as t.
The speed of sound can be calculated by using the relation
speed= total distance travelled/time taken.
V=2 d/t
Q11.
Ans:- Bats produce sound which get reflected back from an obstacle.By hearing the echo,they come to
know the location of the obstacle and fly safely without colliding with it.
By hearing their echo and emitting the ultrasonic waves dolphins detect their enemy and
obstacle. They hunt their prey by using ultrasonic waves.
A fisher man sends an ultrasonic pulse from a source and receive the pulse from the fish. Hence
fisherman use echoes to catch fishes.
Q12.
Ans:- Bats are able to produce and detect the sound of very high frequency upto about hundred KHz.
While flying the sound produced by bats gets reflected back from an obstacle in front of it.
They come to know even in the dark where the obstacle are by hearing the echoes.Hence without
colliding with the obstacles,bats can fly safely.
Q13.
Ans:- Sound ranging is the process of detecting obstacles with the help of echoes.Animals like
bats,dolphin use sound ranging to detect their enemies.
Q14.
Ans:- Ultrasonic waves are used for sound ranging.
These ultrasonic waves have a frequency more than 20,000 Hz.While the range of audibility of
human ear is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Q15.
Ans:- SONAR stands for sound navigation and ranging.
From the ship,ultrasonic waves are sent in sea water in all directions.After reflections these
waves are received back from an obstacle such as iceberg,enemy submarine,sunken ship etc.This
process is called echo depth sounding.
Q16.
Ans:- In medical field, echo method of ultrasonic waves is used for imaging the human organs(such as
liver,gall bladder,uterus,womb,etc.)This is called ultrasonography.Similarly,echo cardiography
is used to obtain the image of human heart.

Exercise 7 (B) Sound
Q1

Ans The periodic vibrations of a body in the absence of any external force on it, are called the natural vibrations.
Example :When we strike the keys of a piano, various strings are set in vibration each at its own natural frequency because they are of different thickness and under different tensions.
Q2
Ans The natural frequency of vibrations of a body occurs when a body capable of vibrating with free vibrations.
The natural frequency of a body depends on the shape and size of the body.
Q3
Ans fig 7.6 at page no. 157
A body can execute the natural vibrations in vacuum.
Q4
Ans The natural vibrations of a body actually occur in vacuum because the presence of medium around
the body offers some resistance due to which amplitude of vibrations continuously decreases.
Q9
Ans By varying tension, we can get a note of desired frequency.
Q11
Ans In order to produce notes of different frequencies, strings of different thickness are provided on a
stringed instrument. because natural frequency of vibration of a stretched string is inversely proportional to the radius of string.
Q13
Ans The surrounding medium offers resistance to the motion, so the energy of vibrating body continuously decreases due to which the amplitude of motion gradually decreases.
Q14
Ans The periodic vibrations of a body of decreasing amplitude in presence of a resistive force are called the damped vibrations. When a body is made to vibrate in a medium., the amplitude of the vibrating body continuously decrease with time and ultimately the body stops vibrating.
Example: When a slim branch of a tree is pulled and then released, it makes the damped vibrations.

Q15
Ans (1) Damped vibrations
(2) A tuning fork when stroked on a rubber pad, executes the damped vibrations in air.
(3) The amplitude of vibrations decreases due to the frictional force. The energy of the vibrating body continuously dissipates in doing work against the force of friction.
(4) After some time, when it has lost all its energy, it stops vibrating.
Q17
Ans fig. 7.7 at page no. 157
Q18
Ans The vibrations of a body which take place under the influence of an external periodic force acting on it, are called the forced vibrations.
Example:In a guitar, when an artist plays on its strings by his fingers, the vibrations in them
caused the forced vibrations in the air enclosed in its hollow box.
Q20
Ans Natural vibrations
1.The frequency of vibrations remain constant.
2.The amplitude of vibrations remain constant with time.
Forced vibrations
1.The frequency of vibrations change with change in the frequency of the applied force.
2.The amplitude of vibrations depend on the frequency of the applied force
Q21
Ans Resonance is a special case of forced vibrations. When the frequency of the externally applied
periodic force on a body is equal to its natural frequency , the body readily begins to vibrate
with an increased amplitude. This phenomenon is known as resonance.
Experiment:Mount two identical tuning forks A and B of same frequency on two separate sound
boxes such that their open ends face each other as shown in figure 7.8(from book). When the
prong of one of the tuning fork say A is stuck on a rubber pad, it starts vibrating. On putting
the tuning fork A on its sound box , we find that the other tuning fork B also starts vibrating
and a loud sound is heard. This is due to resonance,vibrations are produced in tuning fork B.
Q22
Ans Resonance occurs only when the applied force causes vibrations in the body and frequency of
applied forces is exactly equal to the natural frequency of the vibrating body.
Q24
Ans Forced vibrations
1.The amplitude of vibration is small.
2.These vibrations last for a very small time after the periodic force has ceased to act.
Resonant vibrations
1.The amplitude of vibration is very large.
2.These vibrations last for a long time after the periodic force has ceased to act.
Q26
Ans The vibrating tuning fork A produces the forced vibrations in the air column of its sound box.
These vibrations are of large amplitude because of large surface area of air in the sound box.
They are communicated to the sound box of the fork B. The air column of B starts vibrating
with the frequency of fork A. Since the frequency of these vibrations same as the natural
frequency of the fork B, fork B picks up these vibrations and starts vibrating under resonance.
Q27
Ans The pendulum A is set into vibration by displacing its Bob to one side, normal to the
length of the string xy.
(1) The pendulum D also starts vibrating initially with small amplitude and ultimately it acquire
the amplitude same as the pendulum A initially had. When the amplitude of pendulum D becomes
maximum, the amplitude of pendulum A becomes minimum
(2) because of sharing of energy by them.
There after the amplitude of D decreases and that of A increases. The vibrations of pendulum D
are in phase with those of A. The pendulums B and C also vibrate, but each of them vibrate
with a very small amplitude.
(3) The pendulums B and C remain in the state of forced vibrations while the pendulum D comes
in the state of resonance.
Q28
Ans The phenomenon is resonance. The vibrating tuning fork held just above the mouth of the
tube A, produces forced vibrations in the air column of tube A.
A loud sound is heard at a certain level of water. This happens when the natural frequency
of the air column becomes equal to the frequency of the fork.
Q30
Ans When soldiers march in steps, each soldier exert a periodic force in the same phase and
therefore the bridge executes the forced vibrations of frequency equal to the frequency
of their steps. Now if the frequency of the steps becomes equal to the natural frequency
of the bridge, the bridge will vibrate with a large amplitude due to resonance and the
suspension bridge may collapse.
Q31
Ans In guitar, the sound box is so constructed that the column of air inside it, has a
natural frequency which is same as that of string stretched on it, so that when the
string is made to vibrate, the air column inside the box is set into forced vibrations,
the frequency of which is same as that of the string. Since sound box has large area, it
sets a large volume of air into vibrations, so due to resonance, a loud sound is produced.
Q32
Ans To tune a radio receiver, we merely adjust the values of the electronic components to produce
vibrations of frequency equal to that of radio waves which we want to receive. When both the
frequencies match, resonance occurs and only the energy of signal of that particular
frequency is received from the waves present in the space, leaving the signals of other
frequencies which do not match with the frequency of the receiver circuit.

Exercise 7 (c)
Q1
Ans The three characteristics of sound are:
(1) Loudness
(2) Pitch (or Shrillness)
(3) quality (or timbre).
Q5
Ans Diagram at page no. 166 (figure 7.18)

Q7
Ans This is because, sound board provides a large area and forces a large volume of air to
vibrate and increases the sound energy reaching our ears.
Q8
Ans The intensity of a sound wave at a point of the medium is the amount of sound energy
passing per second normally through an unit area at that point. Its unit is watt per
square metre (W m-2) .
Q9
Ans L=K log I
10
Where K is constant of proportionality.
Q10
Ans The loudness of a sound depends on(1) the intensity I. e. the energy conveyed by the
sound wave near the eardrum of the listener and (2) the sensitivity of the ears of the
listener. Thus loudness of sound of given intensity may differ from listener to listener.
Further two sounds of same intensity, but of different frequencies may differ in loudness
even to the same listener because the sensitivity of ears of a person is different for different frequencies. Thus for a sound wave loudness has a subjective nature, I. e. It depends on the listener, while intensity being a measurable quantity has an objective nature.

Q11
Ans The three factors are:
(1)Loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
(2)Loudness is inversely proportional to the square of distance from the source.
(3)Loudness depends on the surface area of the vibrating body.
Q12
Ans A large vibrating area sends forth a greater amount of energy. Hence, larger the surface
area of the vibrating body, louder is the sound heard For this reason, the
bells of a temple are big in size.
Q15
Ans The disturbance produced in the environment due to undesirable loud and harsh sound of level
above 120dB from various sources such as loud speaker, siren, moving vehicles etc is called noise pollution.

Q16
Ans Pitch of a note depends on its frequency. Two notes sounded on the same instrument with same
amplitude, will differ in pitch when their vibrations are of different frequencies.
Q18
Ans The characteristic by which two sounds of same loudness but of different frequencies
given by the same instrument is distinguish by Pitch.
Q19
Ans figure 7.19 at page no. 169.
Q20
Ans As water level in a bottle kept under a water tap rises, the length of air column decreases, so
frequency of sound produced increases. Thus by hearing the sound from distance, one can get
the idea of water level in a bottle.
Q25
Ans Two sounds of same loudness and same pitch produced by different instruments differ because
of their different wave forms.
diagram at page no. 170,fig.7.20
Q26
Ans As the guitars are identical, they will have a similar Wave form and hence,the similar quality.
Q27
Ans Different instruments produce different subsidiary notes. A note played on a piano has a large
number of subsidiary notes, while the same note when played on a violin contains only a few
subsidiary notes. Thus two sounds produced by different instruments can be distinguish by
their wave forms.
Q28
Ans The quality or timbre is the characteristic of sound which make it possible to recognise
a person by his voice without seeing him.
Q34
Ans The wave form of music is regular and wave form of noise is irregular.
Diagram at page no. 171,figure 7.22
Q35
Ans Musical note
1.It is regular, smooth and pleasant to the ears.
Noise
1.It is harsh, discordant and unpleasant to the ears.
(Please learn and write on your copy).

   

 

STD X CHAPTER CLIMATE

ANSWER KEY:

Ans 1: The Himalayas are called perfect climatic divide as they divide both sides into two different climatic zones.

The two-fold functions of the Himalayas are:

[1] Himalayas act as shield to protect the subcontinent from the bitter cold winds of central asia.

[2] They also act as a barrier from the rain-bearing winds.

Ans 2:The hill station in the south are closer towards the equator, hence the temperature even if they 0 degree Celsius do not experience snowfall.

Ans 3: [1] Because Tamil nadu lies in the rain shadow area of western ghats receiving very little rainfall

[2]Northern plains of India are away from the moderating influence of sea.

[3]because central Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow area of western ghats.

[4]Because of vast latitudinal extent and varied topography.

[5]Because temperature decreases with increases in altitude and air becomes thin.

[6]Because they blow from land to sea.

Ans 4:The important features of Indian monsoon are [any three]

a-The rain is unevenly distributed.

b-It is erratic and unpredictable.

c- It is orographic in nature

d- It is seasonal mostly coming in rainy season

Ans 5: The main features of advancing monsoon are:

[1]DURATION- These prevail during the month of june, july, august and September.

[2] PRESSURE CONDITION-The low pressure prevails over the north- western plains . The ocean,on the other hand has high pressure.

[3]PREVAILING WINDS- The southeast trade winds prevail during ths season.

[4]RAINFALL- North-eastern states receives heavy rainfall.

Ans 6: The main features of cold season are:

DURATION- December, January and February

PRESSURE CONDITION – High pressure prevails over northern plains

PREVAILING WINDS-During this season northeast trade winds prevails

RAINFALL- The rainfall mainly occurs in south eastern coast and north- western part of the country.

Ans7 :Rain shadow area is an area sheltered by the hill from the prevailing winds and having a lighter rainfall than the windward side of the hills

Example bangaluru and shillong

Ans 8: Loo, landbreeze, seabreeze and kal baisakhi are the name of four local winds

Ans 9[1]The range of temperature of station A is 5.6

Because the station is near the sea.

[2]Station A because of high altitude

[3]The annual rainfall of stationB is 31.8cm      

 [4]The station A wettest-August and Driest station –January and Febraury  Station B Wettest-August And Driest –Feb ,March Dec                                                                                  

[5] The Hottest month of station B is May.

[6] The annual rainfall is 131. 5 cm and the average rainfall is 10.95 cm.                                                                    

[7]Station A have  maritime climate.                                        

[8]The station A lies in the southern hemisphere.                    

[10]  These occur in the south india during april and may. They bring little rain which is important for mango, tea,and coffee plant .Hence the name called mango shower.The two features are ;

1 The range of temperature is very high in the interior .

2 Thunderstorm accompanied by dusty winds  are common                          

[11].In the north –west part of india winter rainfall is  bought by’ western disturbance’which originate in the Mediterranean sea . The coastal area of eastern india get rainfall from trade winds which picks moisture from the bay of Bengal                                                                         

[12]   [1] Punjab and jammu Kashmir .                                     

[2]western disturbances originating over the Mediterranean sea.                                                            

 [13] [1] The major portion of Indian sub continent gets its rainfall from the south  west monsoon

[2] June ,july

[14].Rajasthan has a very high temperature due to features like sandy soil and lack of cloud cover whereas panjim is in coastal region ,and due to moderating influence of the sea, has lower temperature.   

[15] cherrapunji lies on the football of khalsi hills in Meghalaya .These are funnel shaped hills.When the moisture laiden monsoon winds enter into these hills they  are trapped in these hills ,causing heay rainfall Shillong on the other hand,lies in rain shadow area of the khasi hills and gets less rainfall.

 

   History&Civics Class X The Muslim League

EXERCISES l. Short Answer Questions

 I. Name the founder of the M.A.O. College at Aligarh.

Ans. Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan was the founder of the M.A.O. College atAligarh.

2. Name the Viceroy who was responsible in 1909 for granting separate electorates on the basis of communal representation.

 Ans. Lord Minto, the Viceroy, was responsible for granting separate representation to the Muslims in 1909.

3. Why did the British treat the Muslims harshly immediately after the uprising of 1857?

Ans . The British treated the Muslims harshly and immediately after the uprising of 1857 because they held them guilty of Revolt of 1857.

 4. Why did the British attitude towards the Muslims change in the later part of the 19th century?

 Ans. The Congress, which started as an All-India Organisation to create a broad based freedom struggle, twined into a major force in the struggle for independence. Thus, the British tried to appease Muslims in order to counter Congress. They began to follow the policy of Divide and Rule to sustain their rule in India.

 5. How did the Hindi-Urdu controversy become an important factor in the formation of the Muslim League ?

 Ans. The Hindi-Urdu Controversy : The controversy relating to use of Hindi as a court language in the United Provinces also widened the gap between the Hindus and the Muslims.

6. How did the relative economic backwardness of the Muslims foster communal feelings in India?

Ans.  General economic backwardness of the country led to intense competition for jobs. While, far-sighted Indians knew that only independence could liberate them from economic ailments.

However, others talked of reservation of jobs for various communities or castes, creed or religion. The British used this Opportunity to push further their policy of divide and rule.

question 7 : what is meant by separate( communal ) electorates?

Answer: the system of election to legislatures which divides voters on the basis of caste, religion and occupation. Under morley minto reforms 1909 mnuslims were given separate electorate and whereby seats were reserved for the muslims could vote for the muslim candidate.

Question 8.what was lucknow pact?

Answer : the joint scheme of political reforms agreed to by the congress and muslim league in 1916 is known as lucknow pact.

 9. What promises were made by Lord Minto to the deputation. which met him in 1906 under the leadership of Agha Khan?

Answer:  Lord Minto  committed himself to give separate electorates to Muslims and to safeguard their political rights and interests; this was done by Lord Minto to the deputation which met him in 1906 under the leadership of Agha Khan.

question10: With what aim did the British imperialists encourage the formation of the Muslim League?

Answer: The British imperialists encourage the foundation of the Muslim League because they thought that it would keep the Muslims away from the Congress.

 ll. Structured Questions I. The reasons for the formation of the Muslim League were many. In this context explain: (a) Any three factors that led to the formation of the Muslim League in India. (b) Any three demands made by the Muslim Deputation in 1906 to the Viceroy Lord Minto. (c) What were the aims and objectives of the Muslim League ?

 Answer:  (a) (1') Loss of Sovereignty by Mughal Rulers : The British established their supremacy in India after dethroning the Mughal rulers who were the followers of Islam. Therefore the Muslims became bitter enemies of the British. The British Government consciously discriminated against the Muslims holding them responsible for the uprising of 1857. However the British sowed the seeds of dissensions between the two communities.

 (ii) British Policy of Divide and Rule : To check the growth of a United National feelings in India and to encourage communal and separatist tendencies in Indian politics they decided to follow the policy of Divide and Rule. To make this policy successful they tried to spread communal hatred through the press, posters, literature and public platform.

 (iii) Rise of Radical Nationalism : Some of the actions of the Radical Nationalists marked a step back in respect of the growth of National Unity. For example, the propagation of Shivaji and Ganpati festivals by Tilak, Aurobindo Ghosh’s concept of India as mother and nationalism as religion and initiation of the Anti-Partition agitation with the dips in Ganga did not appeal to the Muslims.

 (b) (1') Representation of the Muslims in elected bodies on the basis of their political importance and not in their numerical strength.

 (ii) Reservation of seats for Muslims in the State Services. (iii) More state and for promoting new Muslim Universities, (iv) Separate electoral constituencies for the Muslims. ' (c) Aims and objective of the Muslim league were laid down as under: (1’) To promote, among the Muslims, support for the British Government and to remove any misconceptions regarding the intention of the Government in relation to Indian Muslims. -.

 (ii) To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims and to represent their needs and aspirations to the government in mild and moderate language.

 (iii) To prevent the rise of feelings of hostility between the

 Muslims of India and other communities.

 2. The growth of communalism in India was encouraged by the British authorities as well as certain trends in Indian society. In the light of this observation, explain :

 (a) The Divide and Rule Policy of the British. (b) The writings and speeches of the Assertive Nationalists. (c) The erroneous interpretation of Indian History.

 Ans. (a) The Divide and Rule Policy of the British : During the Revolt of 1857, Hindus and Muslims had fought shoulder to shoulder against the British. The British rulers believed that the revolt was inspired by Muslims who wanted to revive the Mughal empire. Thus, British suppressed Muslims by denying them recruitment in the civilian offices and army. After 1870, British changed their attitude towards Muslims, when Congress gained force.

 Henceforth, they started the policy of Divide and Rule with a twin aim to keep Muslims aloof from the Congress and to sustain their own rule in India. Britishers took upon themselves the role of the champions of the Muslims cause. Thus, more and more Muslim young men looked to the British for the protection of their interests against the Hindu majority. Consequently, it paved the way for All India Muslim League to counter Hindu majority Congress.

 (b) The writings and speeches of the Assertive Nationalists. When the Indian youth saw that the strategy of making public speeches, holding processions and agitations had noeffect on the English, out of desperation they took to terrorism. They took the path of show and shell. The Partition of Bengal and the atrocities committed by the Government on the anti-partition agitations further added fuel to the fire. The terrorists remained more active from 1907 to 1914, though their movement continued till the independence of the country. Militant Nationalists ignored the achievements of Akbar and Sher Shah Suri while singing the praise of Shivaji and Rana Partap.

 (c) The manner in which Indian History was interpreted in those days contributed to the growth of communal thinking among the Hindus and the Muslims.

 (i) Some British and communal Historians divided Indian history into the Hindu and the Muslim periods. The rule of Turks, Afghans and Mughals was called the Muslim rule, where the rulers were said to be the followers of Islam and their

 subjects, the followers of other religions. In the so-called Hindu period, Muslim rulers were dubbed as foreign invaders who had settled in India. They portrayed Rana Pratap and Shivaji as national heroes and Akbar and Aurangzeb as foreigners and infused communal feelings.

 (ii) The British and communal Historians ignored the notion of a composite culture in India and tried to create a rift between the two communities. They failed to interpret that the diversity was primarily class-wise and region-wise and not religion-wise.

 (iii) Some communal Historians highlighted the myth the Indian society and culture had reached great heights during the ancient period but was declining during the medieval period which was dominated by Mughal rulers. They did not give much importance to the contribution of the medieval period to the development of Indian economy, religion, art, literature, culture and society.

 (iv) The communal bias was propagated through poetry, drama, novels, short stories, newspapers, etc.

 Structured question 3

Answer:

Ans. (3)

 

(b) The greatest achievement of the World War I period was the Lucknow Pact between the Congress and the Muslim League. Following factors can be attributed for the pact :

  1.  New Objectives of the Muslim League. Initially the league aimed at promoting loyalty towards the British. But, in 1913, it amended its constitution, and agreed with Congress on the goal of self-government.

 

  1. International Events. International Events also distanced the League from the Government. In the First World War, Turkey had to fight against Great Britain. The Turkish ruler was a Caliph or religious head of the Muslims. Therefore, Muslims all over the World made a common cause for encouraging Anti-British feelings.

 

  1. A Compromise between the two factions of the Congress. Mrs. Annie Besant made efforts to reunite the two wings of Congress viz. the Early Nationalists and the Aggressive Nationalists. Thus, Tilak and his followers rejoined the Congress in 1914.

 

  1. Efforts to bring settlement between the Congress and the Muslims League. By 1913, the League had become more liberal under the leadership of Abul Kalam Azad and Muhammad Ali, who favoured cooperation with the Congress. This change was further accelerated by leaders like-Dr. Ansari, Maulana Shibli and others.

 

  1. Lucknow Session of 1916. In December 1916, the Congress and the League held their session at Lucknow. The significance of the Lucknow session was that a joint scheme of Reforms later known as the Lucknow Pact, was formally adopted at Lucknow.

 B. The main features of the Lucknow Pact were as follows:

  1. Four-fifths of the members of the Provincial legislatures were to be elected and one-fifth nominated. The Proportion of Muslim members in the provinces was large like 50% in Punjab and 40% in Bengal.

 

  1. The Imperial Legislative Council should consist of 150 members. Out of these, four-fifths to be elected and l/Sth nominated.

 

  1. Making of war and peace treaty were excluded from the control of the Imperial Legislature.
  2. Half of the members of the Viceroy's Executive Council should be Indians, elected by the elected members of the Imperial Legislative Council.

 

  1.  Provinces should be given a large measure of autonomy in their respective spheres.

 

  1.  No Legislative Council, Imperial or Provincial shall proceed with a bill concerning any community if 3/4th of the members of that community opposed it on the ground that it would adversely affect their interests.

 

  1.  The Council of the Secretary of State for India operating from England, should be abolished.

 

  1. Executive officers should have no judicial powers entrusted to them.

 C.  The Lucknow Pact, although kept alive the system of separate electorates, yet it has been praised on account of the given reasons.

  1.  It Paved the Way for Hindu-Muslim Unity. The Hindu-Muslim co-operation and unity continued throughout the years from 1914-1922. Tilak, who played an important role in it, realised that the success of the National Movement depended on Hindu-Muslim unity.
  2.   Hindu-Muslim Unity Demoralised the Government. Until now, the Government had been repressing nationalist movements by violent means. The Government had no excuse for denying po1itica1 or constitutional means.
  3. Gradual development of seIf-governing institutions. The Government was forced to adopt a policy of appeasement towards the nationalists. Hence, in the Declaration of August 20, 1917, it made clear that their policy in India was gradual development of self-governing institutions. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms were announced in July 1918 to fulfil this aim.

      

CLASS 10 BIOLOGY Ch-Transpiration

 Ex.D. DESCRIPTIVE TYPE

1. Define the following terms

(a)Transpiration:-It is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from the leaves and other aerial parts of the plant.

 (b) Exudation-:It is the oozing out of the substances from the sports of injured plant tissues.

 (c)Potometer-:It is a device that measures rate of water intake by a plant and this water intake is almost equal to the water lost through transpiration.

 (d)Wilting-:It is  the dropping down of leaves due to shortage of water in the plant leaves.

 (e)Hydathodes-:These are the special pore bearing structures present on the margins of the leaf.

 (f)Cuticle-: It is the outer surface of the leaves and stems.

 2 Distinguish between the following pairs-:

 (a)Stomata and lenticels

STOMATA-: These are the pores present on the leaves.

 LENTICELS-: These are the minute of names on the surface of old stems.

 (b)Guttation and Bleeding

Guttation-: The leaves of certain plants exhibit droplets of water along the margins in the morning.This is called Guttation.

Bleeding:-the oozing out of plant sap from the ruptured or cut surface of a plant is called bleeding. 

(C) Transpiration and evaporation

Plz write it from the book.

Note: Remaining  3rd,4th,5th, 6th question of this exercise are already sent

 E. STRUCTURED APPLICATION AND SKILL TYPE

1. LeafD because no grease is applied on any surface of the leaf so evaporation of water takes place from the leafand it dries first.

2.Leaf A dries last because Greece is applied on both its surfaces soevaporation of water takes place at a very slow rate or may be not.

(Note-;Question number 2 and 3 are already sent)

 

2.Leaf A dries last because Greece is applied on both its surfaces so evaporation of water takes place at a very slow rate or may be not.

(Note-;Question number 2 and 3 are already sent)

 4.(1) Transpiration:- (Definition is already written.)

(2) Importance of Transpiration To Plants:

(1) Cooling effect.

(2) Suction force

(3) Distribution of water nd mineral salts.

(You can explain these points according to the marks.)

(3) water is absorbed by the roots nd then it is transported to stem part of plant through xylem tissue

(4)Fig. 5.6.(it is given in the the book under the topic mechanism of stomatal transpiration)

 

ClassX GEOGRAPHY

TEST PAPER CHAPTER CLIMATE

NOTE-Solve this question paper in your copy.

Q 1-Why are the Himalayas called a perfect climatic     divide. Give two reasons.

Q2-Hill station in the south never experience snowfall even when temperature fall to 0 degree celsius

Q3-Give reasons for the following .

[1] When the Malabar coast is receiving heavy rainfall in july , the Tamil nadu coast is comparatively dry.

[2] The northern plains of india have a continental type of climate.

[3] Central Maharashtra receive little rainfall.

[4] India has a varied climatic conditions.

[5] It is cooler on the mountain slope than in the plains during summer.

[6] The north east monsoon bring almost no rain to most of india.

Q 4-Name two important features of Indian monsoon.

Q 5-Describe the main feature of advancing monsoon under the following:

[1] Duration .

[2] Pressure condition.

[3] Prevailing wind.

[4] Rainfall.

Q6-Describe the main feature of cold season under the following heads:

[1] Duration.

[2] Pressure conditions

[3] Prevailing winds

[4] Rainfall

Q7-What is meant by rain shadow area? Give two eg.

Q8-Name any four local winds which blow in india?

Q9- Study the climatic data provided below and answer the question that follow:

 MONTH

 

JAN

FEB

MAR

APR

MAY

JUNE

JULY

AUG

SEP

OCT

NOV

DEC

STATION

     A

TEMP.  DEGREE 

CELSIUS

24.4

25.4

26.7

29.3

30.0

29.9

29.8

27.8

26.9

26.3

25.1

24.8

RAINFALL[cms]

0.1

0.1

0.5

0.6

3.8

26.6

29.6

30.5

26.5

11.19

1.1

0.2

  STATION

     B

TEMP.

DEGREE

CELSIUS

8.1

8.9

15.6

20.1

25.2

24.3

24.1

22.7

20.6

18.4

14.1

9.6

RAINFALL[cms]

0.4

0.3

0.3

1.1

1.3

3.2

7.7

10.3

5.8

0.7

0.4

0.3

 

1 Calculate the annual range of temperature of station A.Give reason why the range is small one.

 

 temperature ?Why?

3.Calculate the annual rainfall of station B .  

4.Name the wettest and the driest month of station A and B.

5.Which is the hottest month of station B.

6.Calculate the annual and average annual rainfall of station A.

 7.Does the station A have maritime or continental climate.

8.In which hemisphere do you think station A lies.

Q 10-Define mango showers. Write two features.

Q 11-How are the sources of rainfall in northern part of India different from the rainfall experienced on the coastal areas of eastern India in winter ?

Q 12-[1] Name any two states that receive rain in January and February.

[2] what causes this rain ?

Q 13.[1]  Which winds are responsible for rainfall experienced over greater part of India?

[2]During which months of the year is this rainfall experienced ?

Q14 Why is the diurnal range of temperature during summer, greater at Bikaner (Rajasthan) than at panjim (Goa)?

Q 15-Shillong gets less than 200 cm of rainfall in the

 year while  Cherrapunji receive more than 1250 cm of rainfall.

 Class- X Physics 

 Chapter 3 Machines

Exercise 3 A
Q1.
Ans(a) A machine is a device by which we can either overcome a large resistive force (or load) at some point by applying a small force (or effort) at a convenient point and in a desired direction or by which we can obtain a gain in speed.
(b) A machine whose parts are weightless and frictionless so that no loss of energy in any manner.
The work output is equal to the work input i.e.effciency of an ideal machine is 100%.
Q2.
Ans:- Machines are useful to us in
(1) Lifting a heavy load by applying the less effort,i.e.as a force multiplier.
(2) In changing the point of application of effort to a convenient point.
(3) Changing the direction of effort to a convenient direction.
(4) For obtaining a gain in speed.
Q3.
Ans(a) A jack is used to lift a car.
(b) A cycle's wheel is rotated with the help of a chain by applying the force on the pedal.
(c) To lift a bucket full of water from the well, a single fixed pulley is used by applying the effort in the downward direction.
(d) When a pair of scissors is used to cut the cloth,its blades move longer on cloth,while its handles
move a little.
Q4.
Ans:- In lifting a car,the purpose of jack is to make the effort less than load so that it works as a force multiplier.
Q5.
Ans:- A machine whose parts are fricitionless and weightless so that which there is no loss of energy in
any manner. The work output is equal to the work input i.e.the efficiency is 100%.
Ideal machine practical machine
1.No loss of energy due to friction. 1.Some loss of energy due to friction.
2.Work output is equal to the work input. 2.Work output is always less than work input.
3.Efficiency is 100%. 3.Efficiency is less than 100%.
Q6.
Ans:- The ratio of the load to the effort is called the mechanical advantage since mechanical advantage is
the ratio of two similar quantities,so it has no unit.
Q7.
Ans:- The ratio of the velocity of effort to the velocity of load is called velocity ratio.Since the velocity ratio is also the ratio of two similar quantities so it has no unit.
Q8.
Ans:- (1) M.A.=V.R.(ii) M.A.<V.R.
Q9.
Ans:- Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of the work done on the load by the machine to the work done on
the machine by the effort.
Or
Efficiency is the ratio of the work output to the work input.
There is some loss of energy due to fricition and weight of the moving parts of a machine so the
work output is always less than work input for a practical machine.
Q10.
Ans:- (1) For a machine used as a force multiplier ,effort < load.
(2) For a machine used to obtain gain in speed effort > load so a machine cannot act as a force
multiplier and speed multiplier simultaneously.
Q11.
Ans:- (1) More than 1, (2) Less than 1 .
Q12. (a)The relationship between mechanical advantage, veloctiy ratio and efficiency is M.A.=V.R.Xn (eta).
(b) Velocity ratio will not change for a machine of a given design.
Q13.
Ans:- Let a machine overcomes a load L by the application of an effort E, in time t.The displacement
of effort dE and the displacement of load is dl.
Work input=ExdE.............(1)
work output = LxdL..........(2)
By definition Efficiency=work output/work input
From eqns.(1) and (ii)
Efficiency = LxdL/ExdE=L/ExdL/dE
But L/E=M.A,dL/dE=1/V.R.
Therefore efficiency=M.A./V.R
Or M.A.=V.R.xn (eta)
Q14.
Ans:- M.A.<V.R.,Less than 1.
Q15.
Ans:- In actual machine,mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio due to some loss of input energy against the force of friction.
Q16.
Ans:- A lever is a rigid straight (or bent) bar which is capable of turning about a fixed axis.
Principle:-A lever works on the principle of moments according to which in the equilibrium position
moment of load about the fulcrum must be equal to the moment of effort about the fulcrum and the
two moments must always be in opposite direction.
Q17.
Ans:- The expression of the mechanical advantage of a lever is M.A.=Effortarm/Load arm .
Q18.
Ans:- The following are the three classes of levers.
(1) Class 1 lever:- In this type of levers, the fulcrum F is in between the effort E and the load L
Examples:- A seesaw,a pair of scissors, crowbar,handle of water pump,claw hammer etc.
(2) Class II lever:- In this type of levers, the load L is in between the fulcrum F and
the effort E.The effort arm is always longer than the load arm.
Example:-A nut cracker,a bottle opener,a wheel barrow,a lemon crusher, a paper cutter & a door.
(3) Class III lever:- In this type of levers, the effort E is in between the fulcrum F and the
load L.Thus the effort arm is always smaller than the load arm.
Example:-Sugar tongs,fire tongs,foot treadle,knife and fishing rod.
Figure 3.1 at page no.51
Q19.
Ans:- (1) For mechanical advantage more than one, shears used for cutting the thin metal sheet.
(2) For mechanical advantage less than one, a pair of scissors is used to cut the cloth.
Q20.
Ans:- (1)For mechanical advantage more than one lever act as force mupltiplier.
(2)For mechanical advantage equal to one, the lever has effort arm and load arm of equal lengths.
(3)For mechanical advantage less than one,the levers are used to obtain the gain in speed.
Q21.
Ans:- A pair of scissors and a pair of pliers belong to class 1 lever.
A pair of scissors has the mechanical advantage less than 1.
Q22.
Ans:- A pair of scissors which is used to cut a piece of cloth has blades longer than the handles so that
the blades move longer on the cloth when the handles are moved a little.
Shears are used for cutting thin metal sheet have short blades and long handles because it enables
us to overcome large resistive force by small effort.
Q23.
Ans:- Given at page no.57 (book)
Q24.
Ans:- The mechanical advantage of class II lever is always more than 1.
Example:-A nut cracker.
We can increase the length of effort arm in this lever to increase its mechanical advantage.
Q25.
Ans:- Diagram:-From the book at page no.51 figure 3.1 (b).
In this type of lever effort arm longer than the load arm.
Q26.
Ans:- In class II levers,the load L is in between the effort E and fulcrum F.So, the effort arm is always
greater than the load arm.Hence M.A.>1.
Q27.
Ans:- Figure 3.1 (b) at page no 51
Example:-A bottle opener.
Q28.
Ans:- (a) Same as figure 3.4 (b) nut cracker.
(b) Class II lever.
Q29.
Ans:- (a) Figure 3.4 (c) bar to lift load at page no.53.
(b) Class II lever
(c) A wheel barrow.
Q30.
Ans:- Class III lever has mechanical advantage always less than one.Draw figure 3.1 (c) at page no.51.
Q31.
Ans:- In class III lever the effort E is in between the load L and fulcrum F.So the effort arm is always
smaller than the load arm.Hence,M.A.<.
Q32.
Ans:- They are used to gain in speed i.e.a larger displacement of load is obtained by a smaller displacement of effort.
Q33.
Ans:- Figure 3.1 (c) at page no 51.
Example:- A knife.
Q34.
Ans:- (a) A bottle opener is a class II lever as load L is in between the efffort E and fulcrum F.
(b) Sugar tong is a class III lever as effort E is in betweeen the load L and fulcrum F.
Q35.
Ans:- Figure from book.
Q36. From book.
Ans:-
Q37. (a) Raising a load on the palm is a class III lever.
(b) Raising the weight of body on toes is class II lever.
Q38.
Ans:- Figure 3.9 at page no 55.
Class III lever.
Q39.
Ans:- Examples of each class of levers as found in the human body are:
(a) Class I lever in the action of nodding of head:
Figure 3.7 from book.
In this action,the spine acts as the fulcrum F,load L is at its front part,while effort E is at its
rear part.
(b) Class II lever in raising the weight of the body on toes:
Figure 3.8 from book.
In this,the fulcrum F is at toes at one end,the load L is in the middle and effort E by muscles is
at other end.
(c) Class III lever in raising the load by forearm:
Figure 3.9 from book.
In this action of biceps,the elbow joint act as fulcrum F at one end,biceps exerts the effort E
in the middle and load L on the palm is at the other end.

Part 3 (B)
Q1.
Ans:- Fixed pulley is a pulley which has its axis of rotain unchanged is called a fixed pulley. This type
of pulley is used for lifting a small load such as a water bucket .
Q2.
Ans:- The M.A.of a single fixed pulley is 1.No,it cannot be used as a force multiplier.
Q3.
Ans:- In single fixed pulley there is no gain in M.A.
A single fixed pulley is used only to change the direction of effort to be applied i.e.with its
use effort can be applied in more convenient direction.
Q4.
Ans:- The velocity ratio of a single fixed pulley is 1.
Q5.
Ans:- The load rises with the distance x upward.
Q6.
Ans:- A single pulley whose axis of rotation movable is called a single movable pulley.The M.A.of single movable is 2.
Q7.
Ans:- The single movable pulley has M.A.equal to 2.Diagram from book page no .51 (figure 3.22).
Q8.
Ans:- The efficiency of a single movable pulley is not 100% due to following reasons.
(1) The friction of the pulley bearing is not zero.
(2) The weight of the pulley and string is not zero.
Q9.
Ans:- The force need to be applied in upward direction.
By using a single movable pulley along with a fixed pulley the direction of applied force can be
changed without altering its M.A.
Diagram from book page no 62 (figure 3.23)
Q10.
Ans:- The velocity ratio of a single movable pulley is 2.The friction in the pulley bearing has no effect.
Q11.
Ans:- The load is raised to a height of x/2.
Q12.
Ans:- Diagram from book page no 62 (figure 3.23)
The ideal M.A.of the system is 2.It can be achieved by assuming that string and pulley are weightless
and there is no friction in the pulley bearing between the string and surface of the rim of the pulley.
Q13.
Ans:- (c) The purpose of fixed pulley B is to change the direction of effort to be applied from upward
to downward.
Q14.
Ans:- Single fixed pulley single movable pulley
(1) It is fixed to a rigid support. It is not fixed to a rigid support.
(2) Its mechanical advantage is 1. Its mechanical advantage is 2.
(3) Its velocity ratio is 1 Its velocity ratio is 2.
(4) It is used to change the direction It is used as a force multiplier.
of effort from upwards to downwards.
Q16.
Ans:- Diagram at page no 62 figure 3.24 .
Q17.
Ans:- Diagram at page no 64 figure 3.25 .
Q18.
Ans:- (a) Some effort is wasted in a single fixed pulley in overcoming friction between the strings and
the grooved rim of the pulley.So the effort needed is greaterthan the load and the velocity ratio
is always more than mechanical advantage.
(b) The efficiency of a movable pulley is always lessthan 100% because some efforts is wasted in
overcoming the friction between the strings and the groves of the pulley.
(c) The mechanical advantage increases with increase in the number of pulleys because mechanical advantage is equal to the total number of pulley in both the blocks.
(d) The efficiency depends upon the weight of lower block,hence efficiency reduced due to the weight of the lower block of pulleys.More the weight of the lower block,less is the efficiency

Class 10thBiology Ch-Circulatory System

Exercise a multiple choice type

1(a)

2(b)

3(d)

4(c)

5(b)

6(b)

7(d)

8(c)

 B(1)Very Short Answer Type

(a) clotting of blood

(b) phagocytosis

(c) transportation of gases

(d) production of antibodies

(e) formation of blood cells

(2) Name the following:

(a) erythrocytes/RBC'S

(b) thrombocytes/blood platelets

 (3) Name the following:

(a) portal vein

(b) capillaries

(c) pulmonary artery

(d) leukocytes/WBCS

(e) venules

(f) portal vein

(g) atrial systole

(h) tricuspid valve

(i) atrial systole

(j) pericardial fluid

 (4) Filling the blanks:

(a) hepatic portal vein

(b) artery

(c) semilunar valve

(d) heparin

 (5) Relationship between the words:

(a) semilunar valve

(b) liver

 (6) A mature mammalian erythrocyte lacks nucleus so that it can absorb more Oxygen and its is not having mitochondria so that the RBC cannot use oxygen for themselves thus all the oxygen can be transported to the tissue.

 C. Short answer type

1 a). White blood cells are amoeboid 

in shape while red blood cells have minute disc like biconcave shape.

 b)White blood cells have nucleus while mature red blood cells have no nucleus.

 c)White blood cells do not contain any pigment while red blood cells contain red colour pigment hemoglobin.

 2.It is necessary to know the blood groups before giving transfusion because if the blood groups of recipient and donor they are not matched during transfusion then the blood of the recipient will consider blood of the donor as a foreign substance. Then the antigens of the donated blood may get attacked by the antibody of the recipient blood and causing the blood cells to clamp together which results in lethal reaction.

 3(a) lymphocytes (WBCS) and microorganisms.

 (b) The plasma from which the protein fibrinogen has been removed is called serum.

vaccines are weakened germs or germ substances which stimulates the formation of antibodies giving immunity against a disease.

 c) Transportation of Oxygen and defence mechanism of body.

 d)Tricuspid valve is located at the aperture between the right auricle and the right ventricle while bicuspid valve is located at the aperture between left auricle and left ventricle.

 4)The sound "LUBB" is produced when the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are closed at the start of ventricular systole and the sound "DUP"is produced when the semilunar valves are closed.

 5)Actually the heart is right in the centre between the two lungs and above the diaphragm.the Nehru and of the roughly triangular heart is pointed to the left side and during working the contraction of the heart is most powerful at this and giving a feeling that the heart is on the left side.

 6)(a)---iii

(b)---iv

(c)---v

(d)---ii

(e)---vi

(f)---vii

(g)---i

 7.Fill in the blanks

1.Oxygen

2.Whole body,lungs

3.Liver,kidneys

4.Liver

5.Hormone,bloods

 D.Descripive type 

1.(a)The system which distributes substances in the body and pick up substances to and from the to and from the various parts of the body through blood and lymph is called circulatory system

 (b) Blood is a red coloured fluid which consists of plasma and cellular elements like RBC's,WBC's and platelets. It flows through blood vessels like arteries,veins and capillaries in the body.

 (c) Heart is pumping organ which pumps blood to different organs of the body.

 (d) Most WBC's can produce pseudopodia with which they can squeeze through the walls of the capillaries into the tissues. This process is called diapedesis.

 (e) The process in which most WBC's especially neutrophils engulf foreign substances specially bacteria is called phagocytosis.This is a defensive mechanism against disease germs.

 (f) The blood of most people contains a  substance in addition to antigens A and B on the surface of RBC's.This substance is called RH factor.

 2.Difference

(a)Systole and diastole

SYSTOLE

The contraction phase of the heart muscles is called systole.

 DIASTOLE

The expansion phase of the heart muscles is called diastole.

 (b)Arteriole and Venule

ARTERIOLE 

(a)The smallest and final branch of an artery is called an arteriole.

(b)Arterioles breakup into capillaries.

 VENULE

(a)The smallest  and common blood vessel formed by the union of capillaries.

(b) Venules join to form larger veins.

 (c)Universal donar and Universal recipient

UNIVERSAL DONOR

(a)A person with blood group O is called Universal donor.

 UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT

(a) A person with blood group AB is called Universal recipient.

 (d))Arteries and veins

ARTERIES:The blood vessels that carry blood from heart to different parts of the body.

The blood carried by arteries is oxygenated blood.

VEINS:The blood vessels that carry blood from different parts of the body to heart.

Veins carries deoxygenated blood.

 3.(a) The left ventricle has thicker walls than the right ventricle because the right ventricle has to pump the blood only upto the lungs for oxygenation but the left ventricle has to pump the blood to the farthest points of the body sometime upto the brain against gravity.

 (b)The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than those of the right auricle because the right auricle has to receive the blood from the nearest Vena cava but the right ventricle has to pump blood to long distances or to the lungs for oxygenation.

 (c)Vitamin k is essential for the process of blood clotting because it helps to produce a substance prothrombin which is essential for the process of clotting of blood.

 4. IMPORTANT ROLES

(a) TONSILS:these are the lymphatic organs which tend to localise infection and prevent it from spreading to the body as a whole.

 (b) SPLEEN:It acts like a blood reservoir and destroys worn out red blood cell.

 (c) HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN:this vein does not directly convey the blood from the stomach and intestine to the posterior Vena cava instead lt first enter the liver and then poured the blood here.

 (d) BASOPHILS:it releases chemical histamine for inflammation which dilates blood vessels.

 (e)S.A.N:It is also known as pacemaker and is located in the walls of the right auricle which initiates the heartbeat

(f) Doublecirculation means blood flows twice in the heart before it completes one ful round first through the lungs and second through the body.Thus double circulation consists of two types of circulations first one is called pulmonary circulation and second one is called systemic circulation

Pulmonary circulation start in the pulmonary artery which arise from the right ventricle and then it enters the lungs from here pulmonary veins collect the oxygenated blood and carry it back to the left auricle it is a short circulation.

Systemic circulation starts with the aorta which arises from the left ventricle. The aorta sends arteries to various body parts and their tissues. F rom their the blood is collected by veins and

poured back into the heart.

 

(f)1.the injured tissue cells and the platelets which disintegrate at the site of the wound release a substance thrombokinase .

 

2. The thrombokinase with the help of calcium ions converts the substance prothrombin of the plasma into thrombin(active).

 

3 Thrombin in the presence of calcium ions reacts with the solouble fibrinogenof the plasma and convert it into insoluble fibrin .These insoluble fibrin form a network at the wound.

 

4.Blood cells are trapped in the network of the fibrin the network then shrinks and squeeze out the rest of the plasma in the form of serum. The solid mass which is left behind is called clot

(g)It form The matrix for the various cellular elements of the blood.

2.It contains many organic and inorganic substances which are required for the metabolic activities of the body.

(g) Functions of blood

1.It helps in the transportation of gases like Oxygen and Carbon dioxide in the body

2.It helps in the distribution of hormones secreted by the special glands directly into the blood.

3.the blood helps in keeping the temperature of the body uniform by distributing heat.

E.Structured/Application/Skill Type

(a)1-RBC

2-WBC

3-PLATELETS

4-PLASMA

(b)RBC-1.Having biconcave disc like structure.

Mature RBC'S have no nucleus

WBC-1Having amoeboid shape.

2.Having nucleus.

(c)1RBCS TRANSPORTS OXYGEN IN COMBINATION WITH HAEMOGLOBIN

WBC'S-IT PROTECTS THE BODY AGAINST INFECTIONS.

BLOOD PLATELETS-IT HELPS IN THE CLOTTING OF BLOOD.

(d)120 days.

(e) fibrinogen.

2.(a)No.3 represents the heart because all the blood vessels carry oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are opening here

(b) 1-pulmonary artery

2-lungs

3-heart

4-pulmonary vein

5-aorta

6-hepatic artery

7-hepatic portal vein

8-renal vein

9-superior Vena cava

10-stomach

3(a)A-artery, B-vein and C-capillary

(b)1-external connective tissue layer, 2-lumen,3-middle layer and 4-endothelium

(c)artery  1-it is having thick muscular walls and narrow lumen

Vein 2- it is having thin muscular walls and wider lumen

(d) A-oxygenated

B-deoxygenated

(e)exchange of gases actually takes place in C

4(a) ventricular systole

(b) ventricles because semilunar valves are  open and blood is entering into pulmonary artery and aorta from right and left side of the heart respectively

(c)1-pulmonary artery

2-aorta

3-pulmonary vein

4-left auricle

5-left ventricle

6-right ventricle

(d)1-deoxygenated

2-oxygenated

(e)2 valves

5(a)RBC

(b) diapedesis

(c) already done in question number first

(d) phagocytosis

It helps to fight against infections

6(a)1-arteriole

2-artery

3-venules

4-capillaries

5-vein

(b) in lungs

7(a) intercellular fluid or tissue fluid

(b) RBC'S

(c)lymph

(d)1-lymph supplies nutrition and oxygen to those parts where blood cannot reach

2-lymphocytes of the lymph help to defend the body.

Class 10 Physics chapter 2  work energy and power

 

Q1  Define work.when is work said to be done by a force?

Ans Work is said to be done only when the force applied on a body makes the body move.

    When a body moves under the influence of force, work is said to be done.

Q2  How is the work done by a force measured when (1) force is in direction of displacement (2) force is at      an angle to the direction of displacement?

Ans (1) if force is in direction of displacemen, cos 0°=1, W=FxS

    The work done is positive.

(2) cos90°=0, W=0The work done is zero.

Q3  A force acted upon by a force. State two conditions when the work done is zero.

Ans (1) when there is no displacement (S=0).

(2) when the displacement is normal to the direction of force.

Q4. State the condition when the work done by a force is positive and negative. Explain with the help of         examples.

Ans (1) if a body revolves in a circular path under the influence of force, on completing one round, the         displacement become  zero  so  work done by the force is zero.

  (2) when a body moves on a surface, the force of friction between body and surface is in direction opposite      to the motion of the body, therefore, the work done by the force of friction is negative.

Q5  What are the S. I. and C. G. S. unit of work. How are they related? Establish the relation between           them.

Ans The S. I. Unit of work is joule(J) and. C. G. S. Unit is erg.

    1joule=1Nx1m=100000dyne*100cm

    =10000000dyne cm =10000000erg.

Q6  state and define S. I. Unit of work.

Ans S.I.Unit of work is joule(J).

    Work is said to be 1joule when a force of 1N displaces a body through a distance of 1m in its own            direction.

Q7  Express joule in terms of erg.

Ans from book at.page no. 23 relationship between joule and erg given

 

Q8  A body of mass m falls down through a height h. Obtain an expression for the work done by the force  of     gravity.

Ans:-Let a body of mass m be moved down through a vertical height h either directlyor through an inclined         plane. The force of gravity on the body is F =mg acting vertically downward and vertical displacement        in the direction of force S=h.Therefore the work done by the force of gravity is W=FS=mgh.

Q9  Define the term energy and state it's S. I. Unit.

Ans The energy of body is its capacity to do work. The S. I. Unit of energy is joule(J).

Q10 Define a kilowatt hour. How is it related to joule?

Ans 1kilowatt hour:one kilowatt hour is the energy spent by a source of power 1KW in lh.

    1KWh=1KW×1h=

    =1000js-1x3600s=3.6MJ.

Q11 Define the term power. State its S. I. Unit.

Ans The rate of doing work is called power. The S. I. Unit of power is watt.

Q12 State two factors on which power spent by a source depends. Explain your answer with examples.

Ans Power spent by a source depends on the following two factors:(1) the amount of work done by the source.

(2) the time taken by the source to do the said work.

Q13 Differentiate between work and power.

Ans from book page no24.

 Q14 Differentiate between energy and power.

Ans from book page no. 25.

Q15 State and define S. I. Unit of power.

Ans The S.I. Unit of power is watt(W).

    The power spent is said to be 1watt, if 1joule work is done in 1second.

Q16 (a) Name the physical quantity measured in terms of horse power.

Ans Power.

(b) How is horse power related to the S. I. Unit of power?

Ans 1H.P.=746W=0.746kW.

Q17 Differentiate between watt and watt hour.

Ans watt is the unit of power , while Wh (watt hour) is unit of energy.

                                      

                    Exercise 2b

 

Q1   What are the two forms of mechanical   energy?

Ans  The two forms of mechanical energy:(1) potential energy(2) kinetic energy.

Q2   Define the term potential energy of a

     body.Nameits two forms and give one example of each.

Ans  The energy possesedby a body at rest in its changed position or change in size and shape is called  potential energy. (1) Gravitational potential energy. Example abody placed at a height.

(2)  Elastic potential energy

     Example a wound up watch spring.

Q3.  Name the form of energy which a body may posses even when it is not in motion.Give an example to     support your answer.

Ans:-potential energy.Example:- abody placed at a height.

Q4.  What is meant by the gravitational potential  energy?  Derive an expression for it for a body placed         at a height above the ground.

Ans:-The potential energy possessed by a body due to the force of attraction of earth on it,is called its         gravitational potential energy.

     Let a body of mass m be lifted from the ground to a vertical height h.The least upward force required        to lift the body must be equal to the force of gravity F =mg on the acting veritically downwards.The         work done on the body is W=Forcex displacement

     =mgxh=mgh this work is done in lifting the body up and it gets stored in the in lifting the body up and      it gets stored in the body in the form of its gravitational potential energy when it is at height h.

     Thus,Gravitational potential energy U=mgh.

Q5.  Write an expression for the potential energy of a body of mass m placed at a height h above the earth        surface.State the assumptions made,if any.

Ans:-The potential energy of a body of mass m placed at a height h above the earth surface,U=mgh. 

     Assumption:-When the body is on the ground,its gravitational potential energy is zero.

Q6.  What do you understand by the kinetic energy of a body?

Ans:-The energy possessed by a body due to its state of motion is called the kinetic energy.

Q7.  A body of mass m is moving with a velocity v.Write the expression for its kinetic energy.

Ans:-If a body of mass m is moving with velocity v, then kinetic energy i.e. k=1/2m v2.

Q8.  State the work-energy theorem.

Ans:-According to the work energy theorem,the work done by a force on a moving body is equal to the increase

     in its kinetic energy.

Q9.  Name the three forms of kinetic energy and give one example of each.

Ans:-Three forms of kinetic energy are as:

     1.Translational kinetic energy

     Example:-A car moving in a straight path.

     2.Rotational kinetic energy

     Example:-A spinning top.

     3.Vibrational kinetic energy

     Example:-A wire clamped at both the ends, when struck in the middle vibrates.The energy posseseed by         wire is the vibrational kinetic energy.

Q10. State two differences between the potential energy and the kinetic energy.

Ans:-at page no.33 (given)

Q11. When an arrow is shot from a bow,it has kinetic energy in it.Explain briefly from where does it get

     its kinetic energy.

Ans:-When the string of a bow is pulled,some work is done which is stored in the deformed state of the

     bow in the form of its elastic potential energy.On releasing the string to shoot an arrow, the           potential energy of the bow changes into the kinetic energy of the arrow which makes it move.

Q12. A ball is placed on a compressed spring.What form of energy does the spring possess?On releasing the         spring,the ball flies away.Give a reason.

Ans:-A compressed spring has the elastic potential energy due to its compressed state.When it is           released,the potential energy of the spring changes into the kinetic energy which does work on the ball

     placed on it and changes into the kinetic energy of the ball due to which it flies away.

    (Fig 2.12 from book)

Q13.  A Pebble is thrown up.it goes to a height and then comes back on the ground.state different forms of         energy changes during its motion.

 Ans  When a pebble is thrown up,the kinetic energy in it changes in to potential energy.At the top position

      kinetic energy completely changes in to potential energy.while coming down,potential energy changes in      to kinetic energy .At the bottom ,potential energy completely changes into kinetic energy.

Q14  In what way does the temperature of water at the bottom of a water fall is different from the           temperature at the top?Explain the reason.

Ans:-When water falls from a height,the potential energy stored in water at that height changes into the      kinetic energy of water during the fall.On striking the ground a part of the kinetic energy of water

     changes into heat energy due to which the temperature of water rises.

Q15. Name six different forms of energy?

Ans:-Six different forms of energy are (1)Solar energy (2) Heat energy (3)Light energy (4)Chemical energy

     (5)Hydro energy (6)Nuclear energy.              

Q16.Energy can exist in serval forms and may change from one form to another.For each of the following state

    the energy changes that occur in:

    (a) The unwinding of a watch spring

Ans:-Potential energy a watch spring into kinetic energy.

    (b) A loaded truck started and set in motion.

Ans:-Chemical energy of diesel or petrol change into mechanical energy.

    (c) a car going uphill.

Ans:-Kinetic energy into potential energy.

    (d)photosynthesis in green leaves plants.

Ans:-Light energy into chemical energy .

    (e) Charging of a battery.

Ans:-Electrical energy into chemical energy.

    (f) respiration

Ans:-chemical energy into heat energy.

    (g) burning of a matchstick.

Ans:-chemical energy into heat energy and light energy.

    (h)explosion of cracker.

Ans:-chemical energy into heat, light and sound energy.

Q17. State the energy changes in the following cases while in use:

     (a)  Loud speaker

Ans:-electrical energy changes into sound energy.

     (b) a steam engine

Ans:-Heat energy changes into mechanical energy.

     (c)Microphone

Ans:-Sound energy changes into electrical energy.

     (d) Washing machine.

Ans:-Electrical energy changes into mechanical energy.

     (e)A glowing electrical bulb.

Ans:-Electrical energy changes into light energy.

     (f)Burning of coal.

Ans:-Chemical energy changes into heat energy.

     (g) A solar cell.

Ans:-Light energy changes into electrical energy.

     (h)Bio gas burner

Ans:-Chemical energy changes into heat energy.

     (i) An electric cell in a circuit.

Ans:-Chemical energy changes into  electrical energy.

     (j) Petrol engine of a running car.

Ans:- Chemical energy changes into  mechanical energy.

     (k) An electric toaster

Ans:-Electrical energy changes into heat energy.

     (L)A photovoltaic cell.

Ans:-Light energy into electrical energy.

     (m)Electomagnet

Ans:-Electrical changes into magnatic energy.

Q18. Name the process used for producing electricity from the nuclear energy.

Ans:-The process used for producing electricity from the nuclear energy is nuclear fission.

Q19. Is it practically possible to convert a form of energy completely into the other useful form?

     Explain your answer:-

Ans:-No,because whenever there is a conversion of energy completely into other useful form,a part of energy

     is lost to the surroundings in the form of heat.

Q20. What is degraded energy?

Ans:-While transformation of energy from one form to the other desired form,a part of energy changes to some

     other undesirable form or a part is lost to the surroundings due to radiation or friction which become       useless this is known as degraded energy.

Q21. What do you mean by degradition of energy?Explain it by taking one example of your daily life.

Ans:-While transformation of energy from one form to the other desired form,a part of energy changes to some

     other undesirable form or a part is lost to the surroundings due to radiation or friction which become       useless this is known as degraded energy.

     Example:-

                   When a bulb is lighted using the electrical energy,a major part of it is lost in the form      of heat energy,only a small part converts into the useful light energy.

  

               Exercise 2 (c)

Q1.  State the principle of conservation of energy.

Ans:-According to the principle of conservation of energy,energy can neither be created nor can it be      destroyed.It only changes from one form to the other.

Q2.  What do you understand by the conservation of mechanical energy?State the condition under which the

     mechanical energy is conserved.

Ans:-If there is only an interchange between the potential energy and kinetic energy,the total mechanical

     energy remains constant  i.e. K+U= constant when there are no frictional forces.

              The conservation of mechanical energy is therefore strictly valid only in absence of external

     forces such as friction due to air.

Q3.  Name two examples in which the mechanical energy of a system remains constant.

Ans:-(1) Motion of a simple pendulum.

     (2) Motion of a freely falling body.

Q4.  Show that the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy is always conserved in the case of a freely

     falling body under gravity from a height h by finding it when (1) the body is at the top,

     (ii) the body has fallen a distance x,(iii) the body has reached the ground.

Ans:-Let a body of mass m be fallling freely under gravity from a  height h above the ground

     (i.e. from postion A) Now calculate the sum of kinetic energy K and potential energy U at various      positions say at A (at height h above the ground),at B (when it has fallen through a distance x),and

     at C (on the ground).

                  

         Figure at page no 2.17

 

     At the position A 

     intial velocity of body=0(since body is at rest at A)

            Kinetic energy  =0

         Potential energy U =mgh

     Mechanical energy      =K+U=0+mgh=mgh.......(1)

     At the postion B  (when it has fallen a distance x)

     Let v1 be the velocity acquired by the body at B after falling through a distance x.Then u=0,S=x,a=g

     From equation v2=u2+2as

                   v2=0+2gx

                   k =1/2mv2=1/2m(2gx)=mgx

     Now at B,height of body above the ground=h-x therefore U=mg(h-x)

          mechanical energy=k+u=mgx+mg(h-x)=mgh......(2)

    At the position C (on the ground)

    Let the velocity acquired by the body reaching the ground be v.Then u=0,S=h,a=g

    from equation v2=u2+2as

                  v2=0+2gh

                  v2=2gh

                   K=1/2mv2=1/2m(2gh)=mgh

                   U=0( at the ground when h=0)

       hence mechanical energy=K+U=mgh+0=mgh...........(3)

    From equations(1),(2) & (3), we note that the total mechanical energy(i.e,the sum of kinetic energy and

    potential energy)always remains constant at each point of motion.

Q5.  A pendulum is oscillating on either side of its rest position.Explain the energy changes that takes          place in the oscillating pendulum.How does the mechanical energy remain constant in it?Draw the

     necessary diagram.

Ans:-The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy becomes maximum at B where it is momentarily

     at rest,when the bob swings from A to B.From B to A,again the potential energy changes into kinetic

     energy and this process repeat again and again.So,while swinging,the bob has the potential energy at         the extreme position B or C and kinetic energy at resting position A.The bob has both the kinetic and

     potential energy at an intermediate position (between A and B or between A and C)and the sum of both

     energy (i.e.the total mechanical energy)remains constant  throughout the swing.

             Diagram from book at page no.45

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 Class X CHAPTER-7  [WATER RESOURCES]                  

Ans 1 Artificial application of  water to the soil for growing crops.

Ans 2- India experience a tropical monsoon type of climate which is unfortunately erratic, unreliable , irregular and unevenly  distributed that is why irrigation is necessary for a country like India.

Ans 3 The different method of irrigation are tank, canal and well irrigation

Ans 4 Perennial canals are better than inundation canal. because these canals are useful throughout the year as they draw water from perennial rivers, artificial lakes or barrages, Constructed across the river

Ans 5 Tanks are constructed in the areas of natural depression by building earthen embankment or masonry walls to collect water. They are used in peninsular India where the underlying hard rocks do not allow water to seep through.

Ans 6 ADVANTAGES OF TANK IRRIGATION:

[1] Tank irrigation is cheaper than other types of irrigation.

[2] They are used in dry season.

[3] Tank occupy less area and can easily built in the region where it is not possible to built canal.

DISADVANTAGES:

[1] Tanks are shallow, large amount of water is wasted through evaporation.

[2] Tanks are non-perennial and dry up in summer.

[3] They are costly in comparison to wells and tube wells.

Ans 7 Tanks irrigation is more popular in south India in the states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh because:

[1] The Deccan plateau is rocky and does not allow rain water to seep through.

[2] Deccan plateau is highly dissected one with natural depression. Hence it is easy to construct the tank.

Ans 8 Of the two types of well tube well is the best because :

[1] They irrigate large areas.

[2] They do not cause ant pollution.

[3] They occupy less area as compared to surface well.

Ans 9 Tank irrigation is practiced in southern India in the states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh and well irrigation is practiced in northern plains in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab and Bihar.

Ans 10 The two methods of drawing water from the well are Persian wheel or reheat and it is worked by bullock and buffaloes

Ans 11 Because it is cheaper to construct as compared to canal.

It is independent source of irrigation and can used by individual farmer

It can be dug anywhere when required.

Ans 12 It is cheaper than canal construction

In canal irrigation farmers has to pay regularly but wells are their own property

Ans 13 The difference between surface water and groundwater resources are:

SURFACE WATER season

 : Surface water is available on the surface of the earth in the form of rivers, lakes, ponds and canals

The two advantages of surface is

1-The supply is likely to be certain even during dry session        

2- It is likely to be free from pathogenic agents.

GROUND WATER

The water which is present  beneath earth’s surface

Advantages of ground water is

It does not get polluted

The water get filtered while percolating through sand and stones

Ans 14 The two important canal systems each in utter Pradesh and Punjab are

1-Utter Pradesh-Upper Ganga canal and Agra canal                 

2-punjab-nangal and sir hind canal

Ans 15 The two problems are-

1-uneven distribution of rainfall in India

2 –Old methods of irrigation are still followed in many states.

Ans 16 The difference between inundation canal and perennial canal

Perennial canals supply water throughout the year where as inundation canals are taken out directly from the river during floods, without any regulating system like barrages at their head to regulate the flow of water.

Ans 17 Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals because 1. inundations canals are taken out from the rivers when they are in flood and there is excess of water. Hence if they are converted into perennial canal they   will have water throughout the year.2.only lower level areas can be irrigated by such canals as they have no regulating systems .

Ans 18. Tubewell irrigation in is more important in northern India than in southern India because 1.water table is high in northern India 2.ground should be soft preferably alluvial soil 3. The area must get adequate rainfall to replenish ground water 4.cheap hydro electric power required.

Ans 19. Tank irrigation is more popular in southern india because  1.rocks are nonporous 2. Rainfall is seasonal 3. Cheap to construct tank

Ans 20. Gujrat and Rajasthan are  the two states suffer periodically suffer drought  because  of very less rainfall .

Ans 21.Objectives of national water policy are;

1.To provide surplus water to the deficit areas.

2.The policy aim to reduce water pollution and to improve the quality of water of rivers

3.The recharging of ground water is also a priority.

4.It aims reducing soil erosion and silting of river beds.

Ans 22. It is technique of increasing the recharge of ground water by capturing and storing rain water.

Ans 23.It is necessary to conserve  water  

1.Developing  water saving technology .

2.Preventing water pollution.

3.Promoting watershed development, rainwater, water cycling and reuse

Ans 24.Rain water can be  over the rooftops and can be channelized through small PVC pipes into the underground pits or bore well to be used by hand pumps or from wells .

Ans 25.Advantages of rooftop rain water harvesting

1.   It improves the quality of ground water

2.   It does not cause pollution .

3.   It is cost effective .

4.   4.It reduce soil erosion     

Ans 26.The states are Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu, Rajasthan, Meghalaya and Assam.

Ans 27.[A]Damodar is called river of sorrow because of devastating  floods .

[B] Due to the presence of perennial rivers .

[c].because of underlying hard  rocks which does not  allow water to  seep through.

ANS 28[A].Drip irrigation

[B] .Bamboo irrigation .

[c].Because water table is high and soil is soft to dig .

Ans 29. The advantages and disadvantages of sprinkler irrigation

ADVANTAGES;

1      It does not involve any  wastage of water

2      It is best suited for arid and semi arid regions.

3      It have higher application  efficiency  .

DISADVANTAGES ;

1.   High initial cost .

2.   High operating cost.

3.   Water must be free from sand debris and salt .

Ans 30 The modern means of irrigation are sprinkler ,drip, and bamboo irrigation

Ans 31.[A] Drip irrigation

[B]. ADVANTAGES ;

1.Intial cost is more than overhead system

2.The sun can effect the tubes .

BIOLOGY 10 CLASS  Chapter-pollution

A.Multiple Choice Type

 

1.(d)

2.(c)

3.(b)

 

B.Very Short Answer Type

 

1.(i)CO2,NO2

(ii)CFC's, Styrofoam

 

2.Matching

(a)--iv

(b)--iii

(c)--vi

(d)--v

(e)--ii

(f)--i

 

3.(i)particulate

(ii)X-rays

(iii)hot

(iv)domestic activities

 

4.Identify biodegradable waste

Peel off vegetables and fruits, grass, paper

 

C.Short Answer Type

 

1.(i)It leads increased growth of microorganisms thus decreasing level of oxygen in the river which lead to death of fish and other water animals. It also affect aquatic plants and leads to increase chemical oxygen demand and biological oxygen demand.

 

(ii) it leads to air pollution causing acid rain,respiratory disorder, deterioration of monuments. It also makes the soil acidic and less fertile.

 

(iii)DDT use in agriculture to destroy pest alter the basic structure of soil,kill microorganisms in IT army even reach the human body through food grown in such soils. It reduces soil fertility by killing microorganisms in the soil.

 

(iv)1. Interferes in communication

2. Lowers efficiency of work

 

2. It consists of kitchen wastes, toilet and other household waste water.

 

3.Oil spills are the accidental discharges of petroleum in oceans or estuaries. The sources of spills are the overturned oil tankers, offshore oil mining, oil refineries.

Effects

i. Soil pollution kills a lot of marine life.

ii. It make aquatic birds flightless.

 

4.i. Prohibiting blowing of horns.

ii. No to burn the firecrackers.

 

5.The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a significant cleanliness campaign started by the Government of India. It was officially launched on 2nd October 2014 by a Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.

 

Following are some objectives of the:

i. To clean the streets, roads and infrastructure of the countrie's cities and towns.

ii. To eliminate open defecation through the construction of toilets

iii. Establish an accountable mechanism of monitoring laterine use.

 

D.Descriptive type

 

(a)Pollution:-pollution is the addition of any such constituent in the environment which deteriorates its natural quality.

 

(b)Waste:-waste is any unwanted or undesired material or substance resulting from industrial, commercial mining, and agricultural operations, and from community activities.

 

(c)Air pollution:-Air pollution means degradation of the air quality which harmfully effects the living organisms as well as certain objects.

 

(d)Oil spills:-oil fields are the accidental discharges of petroleum in oceans or estuaries.

 

(e)Pesticides:-These are the chemicals which kills pests in agricultural farms, godowns and even at homes.

 

(f)Sanitary landfills:-Sanitary landfills are the places where the wastes are dumped in a ground depression and covered with dirt everyday.

 

(g)Noise:-noise is defined as any unpleasant and loud sound interfering with one hearing and concentration.

 

2.Distinguish between the following

 

(a)SEWAGE:-It is the liquid waste from domestic activities.

It consists of kitchen wastes toilet and other household waste water.

 

EFFLUENTS:-It is a liquid waste from lake and rivers

it consists of waste coming from factories and industries.

 

(b)BOIDEGRADABLE WASTE:-These are those substances which can be broken down by micro organisms into harmless and non toxic substances.

For example:-dung,leaves, kitchen left overs etc.

 

NON-BIODEGRADABLE WASTE:-These are those substances that cannot be broken down by microorganisms.

For example:-plastic, metallic cans, glass etc.

 

(c)SMOKE:-It consists of airborne particulate pollutants.

 

SMOG: Smog is the mixture of smoke and dust particles and small drops of fog.

 

E.STRUCRURED/APPLICATION SKILL

 

1.Oil spill, water pollution, thermal pollution,

 

2.(i) noise pollution

(ii) horns, vehicles, loud loudspeakers, aircrafts

(iii) Headache, irritation and loss of hearing

(

. To clean the streets, roads and infrastructure of the country's cities and towns.

3.(i)Ozone depletion

Certain gaseous compounds such as CFC released from refrigerators and packing material styrofom form rise into the atmosphere and their they breakdown in two chlorine atoms which in turn breakdown Ozone into oxygen O2 and O,this is known as ozone depletion.

 

(ii)Aerosols

 

(iii)Skin allergies,cancer and genetic disorders

 

4.(i)PM Sh.Narendra Modi on 2nd October 2014.

 

(ii)1.To clean the street route and its infrastructure of the country's cities and towns.

2. To eliminate open defecation through the construction of toilets.

3.To achieve efficient solid and liquid waste management system.

 

5.(i)Air pollution is degradation of the air quality which harmfully effects the living organisms as well as certain objects.

 

(ii)Gaseous pollution and particulate pollution.

 

(iii)Vehicular air pollution

For eg.Cars

Industrial air pollution

For eg.brick kilns

 

(iv)(a) efficient engines

(b) greater use of compressed natural gas.

(c)Installation of tall chimneys in factories.

 

5.(i)Soil pollution.

Degradation of the quality of soil by industries,chemical fertilizers,pesticides and acid rain.

 

(ii)1.Pesticides

2. Chemical fertilizers

3. Industrial waste

4. Biomedical waste

 

(iii) 1.Damage to vegetation by pollution of soil

2. Fish and other aquatic animals are harmed.

             

CLASS X  SOIL RESOURCES IN INDIA 

Ans 1: Soil is formed under specific natural conditions. It is a mixture of minerals or inorganic matter which result from denudation and disintigration of rocks.

Ans 2 : Soil formation is related to the parent rock material, relief, climate and vegetation. Animals insects and man also play an important role in the formation of soil.

Ans 3 : soil is a mixture of inorganic material , minerals and organic material like humus.Inorganic components like silica,clay and chalk.

Ans 4 :The major soils are alluvial soils,black soils and red soils.

Ans 5 :Alluvial soils are very fertile because every year fresh sediments are deposited by rivers.

Ans 6 :Black soils are formed insitu i.e, formed where they are found.They are called residual soil. These soils have originated from solidification of basic lava spread over large area of deccan pleateau during volcanic activity.

Ans 7 : No black soil doesnot undergo leaching.

Ans 8 : The other name of black soils are Regur and black cotton soils

Characteristics :

1: Retains moisture and becomes sticky when wet .

2: Releases moisture during dry period.

Ans 9 : Red soil are not suitable for agriculture because it lacks lime,magnesia,phosphate,nitrogen and humus and are rich in potash and become fertile with proper use of fertilizers and irrigation

Ans   10 Leaching is a process in which the mineral nutrients are washed away making the top soil infertile. The example of a leached soil is laterite soil

Ans 11:Alluvial soil is widely distributed over the ganga basin.

Ans 12 : The most widely transported soil is the alluvial soil.

Ans 13 : Laterite soil is suitable for growing coffee in india .

Ans 14: Laterite soil is found on the summit of eastern ghats.

Ans 15: Mountain soil is rich in humus but deficient in phosphate ,potash and lime .

Ans 16: Desert soil is found in thse area which receive rainfall below 50 cm features.It contains low percentage of organic matter due to dry climate and absence of vegetation.Soil is alkaline is nature as there is no rainfall to wash soluble salt.

Ans 17 : Laterite soils are formed under condition of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry period.

Ans 18 : Monsoon condition promote leaching of the soil i.e the heavy rainfall washes away the top soil containing silica.

Ans 19: Soil erosion is the removal of the top soil by different agents like wind and water.

Types :

[1] Splash erosion

[2] Sheet erosion

[3] Gully erosion

Ans 20 : Soil conservation is an effort made to prevent soil erosion or reduce the rate of soil erosion.

Ways to reduce erosion:

Aforestation, to check overgrazing and constructing dams and barrages.

Ans 21 : [1] Top soil –it is the uppermost layer of soil consisting of humus which is very fertile.

[2] Insitu-the soil formed where they are found.

[3] Bhanger-it consist of old alluvium,contains kankar, pebbles and gravels and are dark in colour.

[4] Khadar-it consist of new alluvial,contain fine sand and clay and are pale brown in colour.

[5] Humus- it is dark organic material in soils produced by the decomposition of vegetables or animal matter and is essential to the  fertility of the soil.

                       NATURAL VEGETATION

Ans 1 Natural vegetation are plants that have not grown by human. It does not need human and gets whatever it needs from its natural environment

Ans 2Distribution of natural vegetation depend upon variation in the amount of rainfall and variation in relief

Ans3 Trees maintain ecological balance, reduce pollution, maintain humidity , purify air and are a source of timber fruits and fuel.

Ans 4 The percentage of forest cover in India on land is 21.02%.

Ans 5 The forest cover in india is shrinking-reasons are:

[1] Increased demand for forest products.

[2] Deforestation.

[3] Urbanisation\industrialisation.

[4] Over grazing by cattle.

[5] Faulty agricultural practices eg. Jhumming or shifting cultivation.

[6] Large multipurpose projects or river valley projects.

[7] Increasing population.

[8] Forest fire.

[9] Conservation of forest land to agricultural land.

[10] Demand for agricultural land.

PRECAUTIONS TAKEN:

[1] Van Mahotsava.

[2] Afforestation.

[3] Reafforestation.

Ans 6 : Major forest products are timber and wood.

Minor products are gum,tac and medicinal herbs.

Ans 7: There are two factors on which the type of natural vegetation and its distribution depend upon:

[1] Variation in amount of rainfall.

[2] Variation inn relief.

Ans 8: Charateristics of tropical evergreen forest:-

-They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall,they are also known as “rain forest”.

-The thick ground cover of the forest is characterized by climbers and epiphytes.Bamboo .

-and ferns are also common.

-They donot shed their leaves at the same time,they remain evergreen and hence named “tropical evergreen forest”

The important trees of these forests are rosewood, sisam and gurjan.

 

Ans 9 The economically most important vegetation belt of India is deciduous monsoon forest as they yield valueable timber and several other forest products.

Ans10    Deciduous forest are found in the belt running along the western ghats surrounding the belt of evergreen forest.                                                                         

The deciduous forests are found in arias of average temperature of about 24 degree to 27 degree celcius and average rainfall between 150-200 cm.

Ans 11 The trees found in monsoon forest are :

1 Teak- furniture, railway carriages

2 sal- railway sleeper,door and windows

3Myrobalan – tanning leather, dyeing cotton etc.

Ans12 The main feature of mountain forests are :

[1]It consist of mixed deciduous and coniferous forests

[2]They occur in the transition zone of mixed forest and coniferous forests

They are found in the temperate zone of the Himalayas, from Kashmir to assam at varying altitude. In the south, they are found in nilgiri and annumalai hillsat an elevation between 1000 m to 1500 m

Ans13 Desert and semi desert vegetation is found in the area of average temperature of 25 degree to 27 degree celcius and with a rainfall of less than 25 cm.

And 14 The characteristics of mangrove forests are:

[1] They have aerial, stilt like roots.

[2]They can be seen during low tide.

[3]Mangrove forests are characterized by breathing roots which act as respiratory organs.

Ans 15 The other names are tidal and littoral forests

Ans 16 Afforestation means planting of trees over a large area and deforestation means cutting of trees over large area.

Ans 17 The two characteristic features of tropical evergreen forests are:

[1]They are found in the areasof heavy rainfall.

[2]Trees are evergreen and do not shed their leaves.Dence undergrowth and lack of transport facilities make it difficult to exploit.

Ans 18 The deciduous forests are found in the areas of average temperatureof about 24 degree to 27 degree celciusand average rainfall between 150 to 200cm.

Ans 19 Thorn and scrub are found in Rajasthan, Punjab, western Utter Pradesh and Gujrat.Trees found here are khair,babool and khajuri.

Ans 20 Mangrove vegetation. The most important trees are sundry, hintal and gurjun.

Ans21 Sundri tree is hard , strong and durable.

Ans 22 Forest are grown in and around steel cities to reduce pollution and to provide raw material to the industry.

Ans 23 It is grown in Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir.It is used for making railway sleepers and House consruction

Ans 24 The type of vegetation is mangrove.

Ans 25 The total forest cover of the total geographic area of India is 21.02%.

Ans26 [a] As they do not shed their leaves and remain evergreen.

[b] As they are found in the areas of heavy rainfall.

[c]because there the temperature is26 to 29 degree celcius

Ans 27[a]coastal tidal forest

[b]myrabalon.

[c]deciduous monsoon forest

Ans 28 Social forestry- it create awareness regarding conservation of forest and to meet the need of the rural people regarding fuel and timber.

Agroforestry-it combines agricultural and forestry technologies to create more diverse,productive and profitable land use system.A narrow definition of agroforestry is “ trees on farms”.

  Class 10th Biology  Chemical Coordination in Plants

A Multiple choice type

1(d), 2(a), 3(c), 4(d), 5(b), 6(c), 7(c), 8(c)

 B Short answer type

 1.Match the following

(a)-I,  (b)-iv,  (c)-ii, d)-iii

 2. Differentiate between

 (a)Thigmotropism and geotropism

THIGMOTROPISM

i)The growth movement of plants in response to touch stimulus is called thigmotropism.

 ii) Thigmotropism can be seen in plants such as sweet peas,Cuscuta and vines.

 GEOTROPISM

i)The growth movement of plants towards the earth gravity is called geotropism.

 ii) organs which grow towards a gravity are positively geotropic (root tip) and those that grow away from the gravity are negatively geotropic (shoot tip)

 (b)Positive and negative tropism

POSITIVE TROPISM

i)The growth of a plant part towards a particular stimulus is called positive tropism.

 

NEGATIVE TROPISM

ii)The growth of a plant part away from a stimulus is called  negative tropism.

 (c)Stimulus and response

STIMULUS

i)The actions caused by changes in external as well as internal factors of the plant is called stimulus.

 RESPONSE

i) Reaction of plant body towards stimulus is called response.

 (d) Phototropism and chemotropism

 PHOTOTROPISM

i) The movement of plant parts towards light is called phototropism.

 ii) shoots are positively phototropic and roots are negatively phototropic.

 CHEMOTROPISM

i)It is the phenomena of growth of plant organs in response to chemicals.

 ii) The movement of pollen tube of angiosperms towards sugar and peptones is an example of chemotropism.

 3.i)Plants do not move from one place to another in search of their shelter and food requirements while animals move from one place to another place in order to find their food and shelter.

 ii)The movement in plants is called movement of curvature while in animals is called locomotion.

 4. Phototropism-light

Thigmotropism-touch

Hydrotropism-water

Geotropism-gravity

5.Name the following

(a)Cytokinin

(b)ABA(abscisic acid)

(c)Indole-3-acetic acid(IAA)

 C Descriptive type

 1.Define the following terms.

(a)Phytohormones-:The chemical factors responsible for the plant growth are known as phytohormones.

For example auxins and gibberellins etc.

 (b)Tropism-:The movement of plant parts in direct response to external stimuli is called tropism.

 (c)Clinostat-:Geotropism can be demonstrated in the laboratory with the help of an instrument called clinostat.

 (d)Apical dominance-:The phenomenon of the suppression of growth of lateral buds by apical buds is called apical dominance.

 (e) Parthenocarpy-: The development of fruit without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.

 (f)Abscission-:Falling of leaves is called adscission.

 (g)Heliotropism-:The directional growth of plant in response to sunlight is called heliotropism.

 2. The five plant growth hormones are-:

i.Auxins

It promotes cell elongation.

Induce formation of parthenocarpic fruits.

 ii.Gibberellins

Break dormancy of seeds and buds

Delay senescence

 iii.Cytokinins

Inhibit apical dominance

Prevent ageing of plant parts

 iv.Ethylene

Induces fruit ripening

Promotes senescence

v.Abscisic acid

Stimulates closing of stomata

Induces dormancy of seeds and buds

 3. Growth movement of plants in response to unidirectional external stimuli in a plant part are called tropic movements.

Some of the tropic movements in plants are as follows-:

i.Phototropism-:Movement towards light.

Phototropism is of two types:

Positively phototropism-: S hoots are positively phototropic because they grow towards the source of light.

Negative phototropism-:Roots are negatively phototropic because they grow away from the source of light.

 ii.Geotropism-: It means going towards earth's gravity.

Geotropism is of two types:

Positively geotropism: Roots are positively geotropic some because they grow towards the gravity.

Negatively geotropism: Shoots are negatively geotropic because they grow away from the gravity.

 iii.Thigmotropism-: Growth movement of plants in response to touch stimulus is called thigmotropism.

Plants such sweet peas, Cuscuta and vines show thigmotropism because there tendrils coil around other plants in response to one sided contact or touch.

 iv. Hydrotropism-: Movement of plant parts in response to water is called hydrotropism.

It is of two types:

Positively hydrotropic:When a plant part gross towards a source of moisture it is said to be positively hydrotropic.

Negatively hydrotropic:When a plant that grows away from the source of moisture it is said to be negatively hydrotropic.

 v. Chemotropism-:It is the phenomenon of growth of plant organs in response to chemicals.The movement of tentacles in drosera towards the source of nutrition is an example of chemotropism.

 4.The response of plants to gravity can be observed  when seedlings are placed in a pot filled with moist soil.In the figure the shoot show negative geotropism and roots show positive geotropism. This is good for the normal growth of the seedling as roots need to grow down in the soil to absorb minerals and shoots need to grow up towards sunlight.

(Draw fig.7.1 of Geotropism)

 5.When the plant parts towards a source of stimulus it is called positive  tropic movement in plants and when the plant parts move away from the source of stimulus it is called negative tropic movement.

Examples of positive and negative tropic movement:

i.Shoots are positively phototropic because they grow towards the source of light and roots are negatively phototropic because they grow away from the source of light.

 ii.Roots are positively geotropic because they grow towards the source of gravity and shoots are negatively geotropic because they grow away from the source of gravity.

 

iii.  Roots are positively hydrotropic as they grow towards the source of moisture and shoots are negatively hydrotropic as they grow away from the source of moisture.

 6.Take a piece of wire netting or gauze. Suspend it by means of wires.Moist sawdust is placed on the wire netting and some germinating bean seeds are embedded in the sawdust.

As the seeds germinate,the radicals initially grow downwards through the wire netting under the influence of gravity. But soon, day start growing upwards, towards moist sawdust, which is the only source of water.this shows that that roots are more positively hydrotropic than geotropic.

E. Structure type

1.(a) apical dominance

(b) auxins

(c) cytokinins

 2.(a) ethylene

(b)i.induces fruit ripening

ii. Promotes senescence

 3.(a)Chemotropism

it is the phenomenon of growth of plant organs in response to chemicals.

(b)1.pollen grain

2. Pollen tube

3. Ovule

4. Ovary

(c)Sugars and peptones

(d)Angiosperms and gymnosperms

 4(a)X-Stem tendril

Y-Leaf tendril

 (b)Both help the plant to climb up a support.

 (c) Thigmotropism

the growth movement of plants in response to touch stimulus is called thigmotropism.

 (d) stem tendril rises from the stem part of the plant so it is a modified stem while leaf tendril rises from the leaf part of a plant that is a modified leaf.

 (e)Cuscuta and sweet peas.

 HOME

ClassX

History Chapter 2 

  

1question:

Answer:

Nationalism denotes patriotism or devotion to the nation. One who is patriotic, loves his or her country and feels very loyal towards it.

2. Question

Answer:

The feeling of nationalism lacking among the Indians because it was never a one nation and compromised many kingdoms. The loyalty of the people was towards a particular king or kingdom. Thus, the modern feeling of nationalism was lacking among them.

3. Question 

Answer:

1. Economic exploitation was the most important reason.

2. The impact of western education, which led to a rational, humanitarian and scientific approach to life.

4. Question 

Answer:

1. The increase in the indebtedness of the indian peasants under the british rule was a clear sign of policy of economic exploitation. 

2. The indian peasants had to sell their produce at cheap prices.

5. Question 

Answer:

1. The british economic policies were against the interest of indian trade and industry. 

2. India became a source of raw materials for the industries of the company and a market for finished products.

6. Question

Answer:

1. It spread modern, economic, social and political ideas and created a nationalist consciousness.

2. It exposed the true nature of british rule in india.

3. It helped to exchange the veiws among different social groups.

4. It made indians aware about the world.

7. Question 

Anwser:

The vernacular press act in 1878 was introduced by lord lytton. The act forbade vernacular papers to publish any material that might excite feeling of dissatisfaction against the british government.

8. Question

Answer:

In 1882, the vernacular press act was repealed by lord lytton. This gave a stimulus to political agitation and quickened the pace of indian nationalism.

Question 9.

Answer:

Amriit bazaar patrika. The patriot, the kesari were some of the news papres which aroused the feeling of nationalism among the indians in the nineteenth century.

Question 10. 

Answer: the reformer denounced untuochability and the rigidties of the caste system. These movements fought for individual liberty and socail equality.

Question 11.

Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Swami Dayanand, Swami vivekanand and Annie Basant.

Question 12.

Answer:

He founded Satya sodhak samaj in 1873. He established this to secure social justice for weaker sections of society.

Question 13.

Answer:

The objective of the illbert was to remove racial discrimination. Lord Ripon wanted to give the indian judges the authority to hear cases against the europeans. However the europeans opposed this and it could not be passed.

Question 14.

Answer:

1. To unite indians on the basis of common political interests and beliefs.

2. To agitate for a constitutional government.

Question 15.

Answer:

A. Surrendernath banerjee- indian association.

B. Dada Bhai Naoroji: East india association.

Question 16.

Answer: 

The indian national congress was founded in 1885by A.O hume, a retired civilian in the british government.

Question 17.

Answer: 

The second session of the congress was held in 1886, in calcutta under the presidentship of dada bhai naoroji.

 Extra question:

Mention the popular watchwords during the french revolution which influenced indians due to the introduction of western education.

Answer: Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

               Geography NATURAL VEGETATION

Ans 1 Natural vegetation are plants that have not grown by human. It does not need human and gets whatever it needs from its natural environment

Ans 2Distribution of natural vegetation depend upon variation in the amount of rainfall and variation in relief

Ans3 Trees maintain ecological balance, reduce pollution, maintain humidity , purify air and are a source of timber fruits and fuel.

Ans 4 The percentage of forest cover in India on land is 21.02%.

Ans 5 The forest cover in india is shrinking-reasons are:

[1] Increased demand for forest products.

[2] Deforestation.

[3] Urbanisation\industrialisation.

[4] Over grazing by cattle.

[5] Faulty agricultural practices eg. Jhumming or shifting cultivation.

[6] Large multipurpose projects or river valley projects.

[7] Increasing population.

[8] Forest fire.

[9] Conservation of forest land to agricultural land.

[10] Demand for agricultural land.

PRECAUTIONS TAKEN:

[1] Van Mahotsava.

[2] Afforestation.

[3] Reafforestation.

Ans 6 : Major forest products are timber and wood.

Minor products are gum,tac and medicinal herbs.

Ans 7: There are two factors on which the type of natural vegetation and its distribution depend upon:

[1] Variation in amount of rainfall.

[2] Variation inn relief.

Ans 8: Charateristics of tropical evergreen forest:-

-They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall,they are also known as “rain forest”.

-The thick ground cover of the forest is characterized by climbers and epiphytes.Bamboo .

-and ferns are also common.

-They donot shed their leaves at the same time,they remain evergreen and hence named “tropical evergreen forest”

The important trees of these forests are rosewood, sisam and gurjan.

 Ans 9 The economically most important vegetation belt of India is deciduous monsoon forest as they yield valueable timber and several other forest products.

Ans10    Deciduous forest are found in the belt running along the western ghats surrounding the belt of evergreen forest.                                                                          The deciduous forests are found in arias of average temperature of about 24 degree to 27 degree celcius and average rainfall between 150-200 cm.

Ans 11 The trees found in monsoon forest are :

1 Teak- furniture, railway carriages

2 sal- railway sleeper,door and windows

3Myrobalan – tanning leather, dyeing cotton etc.

Ans12 The main feature of mountain forests are :

[1]It consist of mixed deciduous and coniferous forests

[2]They occur in the transition zone of mixed forest and coniferous forests

They are found in the temperate zone of the Himalayas, from Kashmir to assam at varying altitude. In the south, they are found in nilgiri and annumalai hillsat an elevation between 1000 m to 1500 m

Ans13 Desert and semi desert vegetation is found in the area of average temperature of 25 degree to 27 degree celcius and with a rainfall of less than 25 cm.

And 14 The characteristics of mangrove forests are:

[1] They have aerial, stilt like roots.

[2]They can be seen during low tide.

[3]Mangrove forests are characterized by breathing roots which act as respiratory organs.

Ans 15 The other names are tidal and littoral forests

Ans 16 Afforestation means planting of trees over a large area and deforestation means cutting of trees over large area.

Ans 17 The two characteristic features of tropical evergreen forests are:

[1]They are found in the areasof heavy rainfall.

[2]Trees are evergreen and do not shed their leaves.Dence undergrowth and lack of transport facilities make it difficult to exploit.

Ans 18 The deciduous forests are found in the areas of average temperatureof about 24 degree to 27 degree celciusand average rainfall between 150 to 200cm.

Ans 19 Thorn and scrub are found in Rajasthan, Punjab, western Utter Pradesh and Gujrat.Trees found here are khair,babool and khajuri

Ans21 Sundri tree is hard , strong and durable.

Ans 22 Forest are grown in and around steel cities to reduce pollution and to provide raw material to the industry.

Ans 23 It is grown in Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir.It is used for making railway sleepers and House consruction

Ans 24 The type of vegetation is mangrove.

Ans 25 The total forest cover of the total geographic area of India is 21.02%.

Ans26 [a] As they do not shed their leaves and remain evergreen.

[b] As they are found in the areas of heavy rainfall.

[c]because there the temperature is26 to 29 degree celcius

Ans 27[a]coastal tidal forest

[b]myrabalon.

[c]deciduous monsoon forest

Ans 28 Social forestry- it create awareness regarding conservation of forest and to meet the need of the rural people regarding fuel and timber.

Agroforestry-it combines agricultural and forestry technologies to create more diverse,productive and profitable land use system.A narrow definition of agroforestry is “ trees on farms”.

                       

Class X  Civics

Chapter 1

Question 1

Name the two types of authority in the federal set up……

answer :

1.     Central government

2.     State government.

Question 2

Name the law making bodies….

answer :

Lok sabha and rajya sabha.

Question 3

Main constituent of indian parliament…

Answer:

a.     President.

b.     Lok sabha.

c.     Rajya sabha.

Question 4.

Two house ...indian parliament.

Answer:

Lok sabha and rajya sabha are the two houses.

Question 5

Maximum strength of the lok sabha….

Answer.

552 members

Question 6:Composition of lok sabha…….

Maximum members 552.

Elected from states: 530

Elected from Union territories: 20

Nominated by the president from anglo indian community: 2.

Question 6:

Who is empowered to summon……..lok sabha?

Answer:

The president of india.

Question 7

Members nominate in lok sabha…..?

Answer:

The president may nominate 2 members to lok sabha.

Question 8.

How are the members elected …..lok sabha?

Answer:

The members of lok sabha are directly elected by the people with the help of universal adult franchise.

Question 9

Quorum for lok sabha…

Answer:

A quorum implies the maximum number of members required to transact the business of the house. The quorum of lok sabha is one-tenth of the total membership of each house.

Question 10.

How are the speaker D. speaker…...elected?

Answer:

The speaker of the lok sabha is elected from among ruling party’s own members soon after the newly elected for the first time. The deputy speaker is elected in the same way as the speaker.

Question 11

Who presides …...lok sabha

Answer:

Speaker of the lok sabha

Question 12

 Occasion of president’s address…?

Answer:

1.     In case of disagreement between the two houses.

2.     In case more than 6 months have elapsed without the bill being passed by the other house.

 

Question 13

Who presides ……...joint sitting?

Answer:

The speaker of the lok sabha.

Question 14

Rajya sabha member election

The members of rajya sabha elected by the elected members of the state legislative assemblies in accordance with a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

Question 15

Who presides over the rajya sabha?

Answer:

The vice president of india.

Question 16

Who presides …………...in the absence of vice president?

Answer:

The deputy chairman performs all functions and duties of the chairman in his absence.
Question 17.

Mention any ……..equal power with lok sabha?

Answer:

The lok sabha and rajya sabha enjoys equal power in the matter of amendment to the constitution, the authorities of the two houses are equal. Amendment has to be passed by 2/3rd majority in each house.

Question 18

Advantages of lok sabha……………?

Answer:

1.     Members are directly elected.

2.     It controls the executive.

3.     Vote of no-confidence passed in the lok sabha.

Question 19.

What do we mean when we say that the rajya sabha is a permanent body?

Answer :

The rajya sabha is a permanent house, as it is not subject to dissolution. One third of its members retire at the end  of every second year.  And new members are elected to fill the vacant seats.

Question 20

Term of rajya sabha member?

Answer.

The rajya sabha is a permanent house, hence it cannot be dissolved. Each member is elected for a term of six

question 21

 Name the body………...rajya sabha members.

Answer.

The members of the rajya sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies in accordance with a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

Question 22

What is the maximum gap ………...sessions?

Answer:

Maximum six months.

Question 23.

Ex- officio chairperson.

Answer:

The vice president.

Question 24

Adjournment motion

Answer:

An adjournment motion means a proposal to lay aside all other business and take up a definite matter of urgent importance eg. death of several persons, a daring dacoity, some natural calamity, and communal tension.

Question 25.

Name the lists………………….the states.

Answer:

a.     Union list

b.     State list

c.     Concurrent list.

Question 26.

Mention two circumstances ……………………….vacant.

Answer.

a.     If a member, resign his seat by writing to the speaker or the chairman, as the case may be.

b.     If a member, without permission of the house, is absent from all meetings for a period of 60 days.

Question 27.

Mention provisions …………………..money bills.

Answer.

1.     Money bills can only be introduced in the Lok sabha.

2.     The rajya sabha may withhold the bill for 14 days.

3.     After 14 days the bill is deemed to be passed.

Question 28.

Which bodies have the right………………...such laws?

Answer:

Both the parliament and state legislature have the right to make laws on subjects mentioned in the concurrent list. In case of conflict between a central and state law, the law made by union parliament shall prevail.

Question 29

Who decides……..not?

Answer:

The speaker decides whether a particular bill is a money bill or not.

Question 30:

Mention any circumstances ……………………….a state subject.

Answer:

Under the following circumstances…

When the rajya sabha declares by a resolution passed by 2/3rd majority that a state list subject has assumed national importance.

 

Class 10 – Biology – chapter Photosynthesis

A. Multiple Choice Type

1.(b)

2.(b)

3.(b)

4.(c)

5.(a)

6.(a)

7.(d)

8.(b)

9.(a)

B. Very short answer type

 

1. Name the following

(a) Producers

(b) Chloroplast

(c)A.T.P

(d)Glucose

(e)Green plants

(f) Respiration

(g)Stroma

(h)Phloem

2.

(a) Iron

(b) Stroma

(c) Heterotrophs

(d)Oxygen

(e) Phloem

Descriptive type 4.Mention one difference 

(a)Light-NADPH,ATP,and O2

Dark-Glucose,

(b)Producers-Autotrophic

Consumers-Heterotrophic

(c)Grass-Autotrophic

Grasshopper-Heterotrophic

C.Short answer type

1.True/False

(a) false

Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs during daytime

(b)True

(c)False

Green plants are producers.

(d)False

Respiration results in loss of dry weight of the plants.

(e)False

Photosynthesis stops at a temperature of above 40°C

 

(f) True

(g) True

h) True

2. Fill in the blanks

(a)Grana

(b)Iodine solution

(c)Chloroplast

(d)Calvin cycle

(e)Sucrose

3.True /False

(a)True

Photosynthesis increases with the light intensity up to a certain limit, and then it gets stabilized. But if at this point the carbon dioxide concentration is increased, the photosynthesis also increases photo and again get stabilized.

(b)False

maximum suitable temperature when the photosynthesis occurs best is 35°Cand after which the rate of photosynthesis falls and stops above 40°C. Others uppermost limit the enzymes are destroyed.

(c) True

The photosynthesis does continue although the immerse leaf receives low levels of sunlight and concentration of carbon dioxide dissolved in water is also low.

(d)False

Plant detaching of the leaves of a potted plant can occur during day by keeping it in a dark room for about 2 to 3 days.

(e)False

Dark reaction doesn't mean that it occurs only at night. It means it does not depend on light.

(f)True

Because the starting point of every food chain is always a plant which produces its own food through photosynthesis.

4. Correct order

Photons, grana, water molecules, hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, oxygen

5.

PHOTOSYNTHESIS

(a)Oxygen gas is released

(b) Takes place during day time

(c)A constructive process

(d)Sunlight is required.

RESPIRATION

(a)Carbon dioxide is released

(b)Takes place during day as well as night time.

(c)A destructive process

(d)Sunlight is not required

6.Complete the following food chains

(i)Grass-grasshopper-snake-eagle

(ii)Grass-mouse-snake-peacock

7.Non-green plants such as fungi and bacteria obtain their nourishment from decaying organic matter in their environment. This matter comes from dead animals and plants, which in their own turn word dependent on photosynthesis.

8.Photosynthesis is the ultimate source of energy for all living beings. It is the only process which releases oxygen into the atmosphere and we no that oxygen is the life supporting gas. But photosynthesis is possible only due to the presence of chlorophyll in green plants. Thus all life owes its existence to chlorophyll.

9.

(1)to kill the cells

(2)remove chlorophyll

(3)iodine

(4)blue black

(5) brown

10.Oxygen is not a waste product because all organisms required for the existence including the plants which require it at night.

D.Descriprive type

1.(a) Photosynthesis-It is the process by which living plant cells, containing chlorophyll, produce food substances from carbon dioxide and water, by using light energy.

 (b)Thylakoids-These are the flattened sacks in chloroplasts which contain chlorophyll.

(c)Chloroplast-These are minute oval bodies bounded by a double membrane containing chlorophyll.It is a part of plant cell.

(d)Photolysis of water-Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of light and grana.

(e)Polymerisation of water-the process when several glucose molecules are transformed to produce one molecule of starch is called Polymerisation.

2(a)Guard cells-opening and closing of stomata for exchange of gases.

(b)Cuticle-allow light to enter freely

(c)Chlorophyll-trapping of Sunlight

(d)Stomata-exchange of gases

(e)Xylem tissue-conduction of water

(f)Phloem-translocation of food

3.Give reasons

(a)It is necessary to please plant in the dark before starting an experiment on photosynthesis to destarch the leaf.

(b)It is not possible to demonstrate respiration in green plants kept in sunlight because both respiration and photosynthesis are going simultaneously.

(c)Most leaves have the upper surface more green and shiny than the lower surface because the first surface of the leaves have more chloroplast which help in photosynthesis. Also the thick cuticle layer on the process of the leaf makes it shiny.

(d)(1) to kill the cells

(2) to remove chlorophyll

5.

a.Place some water plants in a beaker containing pond water and cover them by a short stemmed funnel.

b.Invert a test tube full of water over the stem of the funnel.

c. Play store operators in the sun for a few hours. Bubbles of the gas will collect in the test tube.

d.When sufficient gas collected then test gas by introducing a glowing splinter into the test tube.

e. A glowing splinter burst into flame which shows the presence of oxygen.

E. Structured/Aplication skill type

1.

(a)1.Photons of light

2. Oxygen

3. Glucose

4. Xylem

(b)

A indicates transpiration

B indicates upward conduction of water and minerals

2(a) Food chain

(b)eagle,peacock

(c) photosynthesis

(d)oxygen

3(a)To show that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis

(b)To destarch the leaves

(c)Write the equation from page no.67 second column.

(d)Only the green parts of the leaf will turn blue black showing the presence of starch.

(e)Diagram is on page no 67 fig.6.1

 

4.(a) To prove that carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis.

(b)Yes,lime water will absorb carbon dioxide and leaf will get to know carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

(c)KOH will be taken.

(d)Yes,we will destarch the leaves of the plant before starting the experiment.Destarching means removal of starch and it can be done by keeping the plant in darkness for 2 to 3 days. It is necessary otherwise plant will not show the expected result.

5.Diagram-fig6.2A and B

 

6.

(a)Photosynthesis

(b)Definition is already written in Descriptive 1(a)

(c)Snail is kept in test test tube baby so that it will evolve carbon dioxide and photosynthesis will occur.

(d)Because respiration and photosynthesis are occurring simultaneously and carbon dioxide is continuously produced by snail.

(e)Hydrilla

 

Class X  Biology

Chapter 4

Absorption by Roots : The Processes Involved Exercise

Exercise -1

Question 1

Absorption of water by the plant cells by surface attraction is called:

a) Diffusion

b) Osmosis

c) Imbibition

d) Endosmosis

Solution 1

c) Imbibition

Question 2

A plant cell placed in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the kind of solution?

a) Isotonic sugar solution

b) Hypotonic salt solution

c) Hypertonic salt solution

d) Isotonic salt solution

Solution 2

c) Hypertonic salt solution

Question 3

The state of a cell in which the cell wall is rigid and stretched by the increase in volume due to the absorption of water is called

a) Flaccidity

b) Turgidity

c) Capillarity

d) Tonicity

Solution 3

b) Turgidity

Question 4

Which one of the following is a characteristic NOT related with the suitability of the roots for absorbing water?

a) Tremendous surface area

b) Contain cell sap at higher concentration than the surrounding water

c) Root hairs have thin cell walls

d) Grow downward into the soil

Solution 4

d) Grow downward into the soil

Question 5

Movement of molecules of a substance from the region of their higher concentration to the region of their lower concentration without the involvement of a separating membrane, is called:

a) Osmosis

b) Diffusion

c) Active transport

d) Capillarity

Solution 5

b) Diffusion

Question 6

Osmosis and diffusion are the same except that in osmosis there is

a) a freely permeable membrane

b) a cell wall in between

c) a selectively permeable membrane in between

d) an endless inflow of water into a cell

Solution 6

c) a selectively permeable membrane in between

Question 7

The highest water potential (capacity to move out to higher concentrated solution) is that of

a) Pure water

b) 10% salt solution

c) Honey

d) 50% sugar solution

Solution 7

a) Pure water

Question 8

The space between the cell wall and plasma membrane in a plasmolysed cell is filled with

a) isotonic solution

b) hypotonic solution

c) hypertonic solution

d) water

Solution 8

d) water

Question 9

What is responsible for guttation?

a) Osmotic pressure

b) Root pressure

c) Suction pressure

d) Capillarity

Solution 9

b) Root pressure

Question 10

The most appropriate characteristic of semi-permeable membrane is that

a) it has minute pores

b) it has no pores

c) it allows the solute to pass through but not the solvent

d) it allows a solvent to pass through freely but prevents the passage of the solute

Solution 10

d) it allows a solvent to pass through freely but prevents the passage of the solute

Question 11

Name the following:

(a) The condition of a cell placed in a hypotonic solution.

(b) Process by which intact plants lose water in the form of droplets from leaf margins.

(c) Process by which water enters root hairs.

(d) The tissue concerned with upward conduction of water in plants.

(e) The term for the inward movement of solvent molecules through the plasma membrane of a cell.

(f) The process by which molecules distribute themselves evenly within the space they occupy.

(g) The pressure which is responsible for the movement of water molecules across the cortical cells of the root.

Solution 11

(a) Turgidity

(b) Guttation

(c) Osmosis

(d) Xylem

(e) Endosmosis

(f) Diffusion

(g) Root pressure

Question 12

Give the equivalent terms for the following:

(a) Pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell wall.

(b) The condition in which the cell contents are shrunken.

(c) Loss of water through a cut stem.

Solution 12

(a) Turgor pressure

(b) Flaccidity

(c) Bleeding

Question 13

Complete the following statements:

(a) Hypotonic solution is one in which the solution kept outside the cell has lower solute concentration than __________ the cell.

(b) Active transport is one in which the ions outside the roots move in with expenditure of energy __________.

(c) The bending movements of certain flowers towards the sun and the sleep movements of certain plants at night are examples of _____.

Solution 13

(a) the fluids inside

(b) from the region of their lower concentration outside to the region of their higher concentration inside

(c) turgor movements

Question 14

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative from those given in brackets:

(a) When placed in a more concentrated solution, the cell contents will ........... (shrink/swell up)

(b) The pressure by which the ............. molecules tend to cross the semi-permeable membrane is called osmotic pressure. (salt/water)

(c) Active transport is in a direction .............. to that of diffusion. (opposite/same)

Solution 14

(a) shrink

(b) water

(c) opposite

Question 15

Match the terms in column I those  in column II

 

Column I

Column II

 

a

Xylem

(i) semi-permeable

b

Phloem

(ii) permeable

c

Cell membrane

(iii) downward flow of sap

d

Root pressure

(iv) upward flow of water

e

Cell wall

(v) guttation

 

Solution 15

 

 

Column I

Column II

 

a

Xylem

(iv) upward flow of water

b

Phloem

(iii) downward flow of sap

c

Cell membrane

(i) semi-permeable

d

Root pressure

(v) guttation

e

Cell wall

(ii) permeable

 

Question 16

Differentiate between the following :

(a) Plasmolysis and deplasmolysis

(b) Turgor pressure and wall pressure

(c) Guttation and bleeding

(d) Turgidity and flaccidity

Solution 16

(a)



Plasmolysis

Deplasmolysis

1. It refers to the shrinkage of the cytoplasm and withdrawal of the plasma membrane from the cell wall caused due to the withdrawal of water when placed in a hypertonic solution.

2. In Plasmolysis, the cell becomes flaccid.

1.Deplasmolysis is the recovery of a plasmolysed cell when it is placed in water, wherein the cell's protoplasm again swells up due to the re-entry of water.

2. In deplasmolysis, the cell becomes turgid.

(b)

Turgor pressure

Wall pressure

Turgor pressure is the pressure of the cell contents on the cell wall.

Wall pressure is the pressure exerted by the cell wall on the cell content.

(c)



Guttation

Bleeding

Guttation is the process by which drops of water appear along leaf margins due to excessive root pressure.

Bleeding is the loss of cell sap through a cut stem.

(d)



Turgidity

Flaccidity

1. It is the state of a cell in which the cell cannot accommodate any more water and it is fully distended.

1. It is the condition in which the cell content is shrunken and the cell is not tight.

 

Question 17

What is the difference between flaccid and turgid? Give one example of flaccid condition in plants.

Solution 17

The cell is said to be turgid when the plant cell wall becomes rigid and stretched by an increase in the volume of vacuoles due to the absorption of water when placed in hypotonic solution. On the other hand, the cell is said to be flaccid when the cell contents get shrunken when the cell is placed in hypertonic solution and the cell is no more tight. Flaccidity is the reverse of turgidity.

Example Weeds can be killed in a playground by sprinkling excessive salts around their base.

Or


A plant cell when immersed in hypertonic solution like salt solution for about 30 minutes will become flaccid or limp.

Question 18

Give reasons for the following:

(a) If you sprinkle some common salt on grass growing on a lawn, it is killed at that spot.

(b) If you uproot a plant from the soil, its leaves soon wilt.

(c) It is better to transplant seedlings in a flower-bed in the evening and not in the morning.

(d) A plant cell when kept in a hypertonic salt solution for about 30 minutes turns flaccid.

(e) Potato cubes when placed in water become firm and increase in size.

Solution 18

(a) Common salt when sprinkled on the grass causes the Plasmolysis of grass cell ultimately leading them to death. Hence, if we sprinkle some common salt on grass growing on a lawn, it is killed at the spot.

(b) If a plant is uprooted, the leaves continue losing water by transpiration, but there is no more water absorbed the roots. This does not allow the compensation for the loss of water by transpiration; hence the leaves of the uprooted plant wilt soon.

(c) Transplantation causes stress to the seedlings. If the seedlings are transplanted in the morning, they would have to immediately bear the additional stress of excessive transpiration occurring during the hot afternoon. Transplantation in the evening helps the seedlings to adjust for a longer time during the night (cooler temperatures) because the quantity of water absorbed exceeds the loss of water through transpiration. Therefore, it is better to transplant seedling in a flower bed in the evening and not in the morning.

(d) In a hypertonic solution, the solution outside the cell has higher solute concentration than the fluids inside the cell. Therefore, water flows out from the plant cell due to exosmosis. The cytoplasm shrinks and the plasma membrane withdraws away from the cell wall and this the cell becomes flaccid. Hence a plant cell when kept in a hypertonic salt solution for about 30 minutes turns flaccid.

(e) Potato cubes contain excess of salts and sugars as compared to the water in which the cubes are placed. Hence, due to endosmosis, water from the surrounding enters the potato cubes making them firm and increasing their size.

Question 19

Mention whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) and give explanation in support of your answer.

(a) Plasmolysis is reverse of deplasmolysis.

(b) Guttation is another name for bleeding in plants.

(c) Soaked seeds burst three seed coats

(d) If the phloem of a twig is removed keeping the xylem intact, the leaves of a twig wilt.

(e) Guttation in plants occurs maximum at mid-day.

(f) Dry seeds when submerged in water swell up due to endosmosis.

Solution 19

(a) True.

Plasmolysis occurs due to outflow of water from the cell when placed in hypertonic solution due to which the cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall. On the other hand, deplasmolysis is the result of the re-entry of water into the plasmolysed cell when placed in hypotonic solution due to which the protoplasm again swells up pressing tight against the cell wall.

(b) False.

Guttation is the process by which drops of water appear along leaf margins due to excessive root pressure whereas bleeding is the loss of cell sap through a cut stem.

(c) False.

There is only one seed coat in a seed.

(d) False.

The leaves of the twig remain turgid since its xylem is intact and xylem is responsible for water conduction in plants.

(e) False.

Guttation occurs due to excessive root pressure. It is maximum when root pressure is maximum which occurs in the early mornings or at night. This is because during these times, transpiration is very low and water absorption is very high.

(f) False.

Dry seeds when submerged in water swell up due to imbibitions. On contact with water dry seeds imbibe water and swell up.

Question 20

Give two examples of turgor movements in plants.

Solution 20

Examples of turgor movements in plants:

(i) In Mimosa pudica, a sensitive plant, the stimulus of touch leads to loss of turgor at the base of the leaflets and at the base of the petioles called pulvinus. This causes the folding and drooping of leaves of the plant.

(ii) The leaves of insectivorous plants close up to entrap a living prey. When the insect come in contact with the leaf, it loses it turgor hence closing the leaves of the plant.

(iii) The bending movements of certain flowers towards the sun.

(Any two)

Question 21

Explain the mechanism of the closing and opening of the stomata.

Solution 21

The closing and opening of the stomata depends on the turgidity of the guard cells. Each guard cell has a thicker wall on the side facing the stoma and a thin wall on the opposite side. Guard cells contain chloroplasts. As a result of the synthesis of glucose during photosynthesis and some other chemical changes, the osmotic pressure of the contents of the guard cells increases and they absorb more water from the neighbouring cells, thus becoming turgid. Due to turgor, the guard cells become more arched outwards and the aperture between them widens, thereby opening the stoma.



At night or when there is shortage of water in the leaf, the guard cells turn flaccid and their inner rigid walls become straight, thus closing the stomatal aperture.

Question 22

Concentration of mineral nutrient elements is higher inside the root-hairs than in the surrounding soil. How do roots take them in from the soil?

Solution 22

If the concentration of mineral nutrient elements is higher inside the root-hairs than in the surrounding soil, then roots take them in from the soil by 'active transport'. In active transport, the mineral ions are forcibly carried from the surrounding soil i.e. the region of their lower concentration into the roots i.e. the region of their higher concentration through the cell membrane by expenditure of energy. This energy is supplied by the cell in the form of ATP.

Question 23

Explain how soaked seeds swell up and burst their seed coats.

Solution 23

When soaked in water, the seeds swell up due to imbibition and endosmosis. During these two processes water enters the cell. Due to endosmosis, at some point, the seed coat is unable to bear the turgor pressure and hence, the seed coat bursts.

Question 24

Leaves of the sensitive plant wilt and droop down on a slight touch. What mechanism brings about this change?

Solution 24

Leaves of the sensitive plant wilt and droop down on a slight touch due to turgor movement. Petiole of sensitive plant is held up by turgid pulvinus tissue. The stimulus of touch leads to loss of turgor at the base of the leaflets and at the base of the petioles i.e. pulvinus. The cells of the lower side of pulvinus lose water and the petiole collapses. This causes the wilting and drooping of the leaves.

Question 25

What is transpirational pull? How is it caused?

Solution 25

As water is lost from the leaf surface by transpiration, more water molecules are pulled up due to the tendency of water molecules to remain joined i.e. cohesion. This produces a continuous column of water throughout the stem which is known as 'transpiration pull'. A negative pressure or tension is produced in the xylem that pulls the water from the roots and soil. Transpirational pull is an important force which causes the ascent of sap.

Question 26

The following diagram represents a plant cell after being place in a strong sugar solution.



Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate the following:

(1) Cell Wall

(2) Strong Sugar Solution

(3) Protoplasm

(4) Large Vacuole

(5) Nucleus



(a) What is the state of the cell shown in the diagram?

(b) Name the structure which acts as a selectively permeable membrane.

(c) If the cell had been placed in distilled water instead of strong sugar solution, which feature would not have been seen?

(d) Name any one feature of this plant cell which is not present in an animal cell.

Solution 26

(a) The cell is flaccid i.e. it is plasmolysed.

(b) Plasma Membrane

(c) Plasmolysis would not occur and flaccidity would not be seen i.e. the protoplasm would not have shrunken away from the cell wall.

(d) Cell Wall is absent in animal cell.

Question 27

A leaf cell of a water plant was placed in a liquid other than pond water. After sometime, it assumed a shape as shown below:



(a) Give the term for the state of the cell it has acquired.

(b) Comment on the nature (tonicity) of the liquid surrounding the cell.

(c) Redraw in the space provided, the diagram of the cell if it is soon placed in ordinary water for some time.

Solution 27

(a) Flaccid Cell

(b) The liquid is hypertonic solution. It has higher solute concentration outside the cell than the fluids inside the cell.   (c)

Question 28

The diagram below represents a layer of epidermal cells showing a fully grown root hair. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:

Selina Solutions Icse Class 10 Biology Chapter - Absorption By Roots The Processes Involved 

a. Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

b. The root hair cell is in a turgid state. Name and explain the process that caused this state.

c. Mention one distinct difference between the parts labelled A and B.

d. Draw a diagram of the above root hair cell as it would appear when a concentrated solution of fertilizers is added near it.

Solution 28

a.  

A - Cell wall

B - Cell membrane

C - Cytoplasm

D - Nucleus

 

b. A root hair gets turgid because of the absorption of water from the surrounding. Absorption of water by root hair is achieved by the process of osmosis. The concentration of water in the surrounding is more than that of the interior of the cell; this causes the water from the surrounding to move in because of endosmosis.

 

c.  

Cell wall

Cell membrane

The cell wall of a root hair is freely permeable and allows both salt and water to pass through.

The cell membrane of a root hair is semi-permeable and does not allow large dissolved salt molecules to pass through.

 

d.  

 

Question 29

Two potato cubes each 1 cm3 in size, were placed separately in two containers (A and B), the container A having water and the other (B) containing concentrated sugar solution. After 24 hours when the cubes were examined, those placed in water were found to be firm and had increased slightly in size and those placed in concentrated sugar solution were found to be soft and somewhat decreased in size. Use the above information to answer the questions that follow:

(a) Account for the firmness and increase in the size of the potato cubes placed in water.

(b) Account for the softness and decrease in size of the potato cubes which were placed in sugar solution.

(c) Name and define the physical process being investigated in this experiment.

Solution 29

(a) Water is hypotonic to the potato cells, due to which endosmosis occurs and water enters the potato cells. The protoplasm swells up pressing tight against the cell wall. The cells are fully distended i.e. turgid. This causes the firmness and increase in the size of the potato cubes when placed in water.

(b) Sugar solution is hypertonic to the potato cells, due to which exosmosis occurs and water flows out of the potato cells. The potato cell loses its distended appearance, the cytoplasm shrinks and the plasma membrane withdraws from the cell wall. The cells become limp or flaccid. This causes the softness and decrease in size of the potato cubes when placed in sugar solution.

(c) The process being investigated is osmosis. Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from a more dilute solution (with a lower solute concentration) to a less dilute solution (with a higher solute concentration).

Question 30

Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:



(a) Name the process being studied in the above experiment.

(b) Explain the process mentioned in (a) above

(c) Why is oil placed over water?

(d) What do we observe with regard to the level of water when this set up is placed in (1) bright sunlight (2) humid conditions (3) windy day?

(e) Mention any three adaptations found in plants to foster the process mentioned in (a) above

Solution 30

(a) The process of water absorption by plant roots through osmosis is being studied here. 

(b) A root-hair contains cell sap which contains higher concentration of salts as compared to outside soil water. This difference sets off osmosis and outside water diffuses into the root-hair. From the cell bearing root-hair, water passes into adjoining cells one after another to finally the xylem vessels.

(c) The surface of water was covered with oil to prevent any loss of water by evaporation.

(d) Roots absorb water and hence, the level of water in set up A falls down. Since the surface of water was covered with oil, there will be no effect of factors such as bright sunlight, humid conditions and windy day on the given set up. Hence, the level of water  

(e) Adaptations in plants to foster the process of absorption of water by plant roots:

·         Large surface area provided by rootlets and root hairs

·         Root hairs containing cell sap at a higher concentration than that of the surrounding water

·         Root hairs with thin walls

Question 31

Show by a series of diagrams, the change which a plant cell will undergo when placed in

(a) Hypertonic salt solution and

(b) Hypotonic salt solution.

Solution 31

(a)


(b)

Question 32

Study the experimental setup in the figure and then answer the questions that follow.

 

(a) What phenomenon is being studied by this setup?

(b) Explain the phenomenon mention in (a) above.

(c) What is meant by 'semipermeable membrane'?

(d) What will you observe in the setup after about half an hour? Give reasons for your answer.

Solution 32

 (a) Osmosis

(b) Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from their region of higher concentration (dilute solution) to their region of lower concentration (concentrated solution) through a semipermeable membrane.

(c) A semipermeable membrane is a membrane which allows the passage of molecules selectively. It allows a solvent such as water molecules to pass through it freely but prevents the passage of the solute (sugar or salt molecules in solution).

(d) Water molecules will continue to pass from 5% sucrose solution to 10% sucrose solution through the semipermeable membrane due to osmosis. This will continue till the concentration of water molecules becomes the same in both ends of the setup.

Question 33

A candidate in order to study the process of osmosis has taken 3 potato cubes and put them in 3 different beakers containing 3 different solutions. After 24 hours, in the first beaker the potato cube increased in size, in the second beaker the potato cube decreased in size and in the third beaker, there was no change in the size of the potato cube. The following diagram shows the result of the same experiment.

 

 

 

(a) Give the technical terms of the solutions used in the beakers 1, 2 and 3.

(b) In beaker 3, the size of the potato cube remains the same. Explain the reason in brief.

(c) Write the specific features of the cell sap of root hair which helps in absorption of water.

(d) What is osmosis?

(e) How does a cell wall and a cell membrane differ in their permeability?

Solution 33

(a) Solution 1 - Hypotonic solution

Solution 2 - Hypertonic solution

Solution 3 - Isotonic solution

(b) In beaker 3, the solution present is an isotonic solution, i.e. the relative concentration of water molecules and solutes is the same in the solution as well as inside the cell. There is no movement of water molecules across the cell membrane. Hence, the size of potato cubes remains the same.

(c) The cell sap of root hair has a higher concentration of solute than the surrounding water.

(d) Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from the region of dilute solution (i.e. a lower solute concentration) to the region of concentrated solution (i.e. a higher solute concentration).

(e) The cell wall is freely permeable to all substances, while the cell membrane is selectively permeable and allows only certain substances to enter or exit the cell.

Class X- Physical Education


CHAPTER-1

 Very short answers

 1.The term growth implies an increase in size. When the body or any part is described as having growth it usually means that it has become larger and heavier. It is thus we say growth of arms, brain, muscles or the body in general. Growth means increase or addition in size, height, length or weight and can be measured.

 2. Development implies certain qualitative changes. These are the changes in character leading to maturity of improvement in functioning. Arms grow large but also develop by undergoing certain changes which equip them for better work. Development means change in shape,form or structure so as to improve in working or functioning.

 3. :-Growth doesn't continue throughout life whereas development is a continuous process. 

:-Growth is cellular and can be measured accurately whereas development is functional or organizational,thus a subjective interpretation of one's changes.

 

4. :-Heridity(explain)

    :- Environment(explain)

 

5. Acc. to Jersild," Adolescence is a period through which a growing person makes transition from childhood to maturity."

 

6. The stages of Growth and Development are:

:- Infancy stage(from birth to 5years)

:- Childhood stage(from 5to 12 years)

:- Adolescence stage(from 12 to 19 years)

:-Adulthood stage (19 to 65 years)

:-Old age(60 years onwards)

 

7. In this period, rapid physical changes happen. Puberty brings remarkable sex difference which changes the shape of an individual,such as breast development, muscular changes,bone hardening, moustaches and change in voice, blackheads, pimples and acne over skin etc.

 

8. :-Aggressive and violent behaviour (explain)

    :-Wastage of time (explain)

 

9. :-Providing healthy environment (explain)

    :-Proper sex education (explain)

 

10. :-Youth stage(from 19 to 35 years)(explain)

     :-Adult stage (from 35 to 65 years)(explain)

 

Match the following:

"Sequence"

3, 7, 8, 5, 2, 1, 4, 9, 6

 

Short answers:

 

1. Done

 

2. Done

 

3. Two differences are already discussed,rest four are:

:-Growth is quantitative process whereas Development is qualitative process.

:-Growth is one of the aspects of development process whereas Development is wider and comprehensive term.

:-Growth changes are physical and physiological whereas development changes are functional, psychological etc.

:-Growth is purely physical term like change in size, length, height and weight of an individual whereas development implies overall changes in shape,form or structure resulting in improved working or functioning.

 

4. Heredity, environment, gender, nutritional, physical activity, health problems and age(all points with explaination)

 

5. Childhood stage (from 5 to 12 years)

:-Early childhood stage(from 5 to 7 years)

:-Middle childhood stage (7 to 10 years)

:-Later childhood stage (from 11 to 12 years)(all points with explaination)

 

6. Adolescence changes:

:- Physical changes

:-Psychological changes

:-Emotional changes

:-Social changes(all points with explaination)

 

7. Problems of teen:

:-Aggressive and violent behaviour

:-wastage of time

:-Friends given importance

:-Overconfident and hide mistakes

:-Wrong sexual desires

:-Lavish expenses(explain all points)

 

8.

:-Proper knowledge of Adolescence psychology

:-providing healthy environment

:-proper sex education

:-correction and checking of mistakes

:- proper use of time

:-mode of education(explain all points)

 

9. Done

 

Long answers:

 

1. Done

 

2. Infancy stage (from birth to 5 years):

:-pre-natal stage (from conception till birth)

:-babyhood stage(from birth to 5 years)(explain all points)

Childhood stage(discussed)

 

3. Done

 

4. Done

 

CHAPTER-2 Class X- Physical Education

 

Very short answers:

 

1. Acc. to J.B.Nash,"Physical education is that field of education which deals with big muscle activities and their related responses."

 

2. Acc. to J.F.William,"Aim of physical education is complete living through wholesome development of human personality."

 

3. The objectives of physical education:

:-Physical development

:-Psychological development

:-Social development

:-Emotional development (explain all points)

 

Match the following:

Sequence:

3, 4, 1, 2

 

Short answers:

 

1. Physical Development :-The objective is wholesome physical growth through physical activities.Also to improve neuromuscular responses and leads to maximum organic growth. To guide a person to make his body strong,well shaped, good looking, good working of internal organs, good health and improves the physical personality.

 

Social Development: The objective is to follow the rules, regulations, traditions and laws of society.  To develop the social qualities like cooperative behaviour, friendship, togetherness, honesty, obedience, sincerity, tolerance, adjustment, leadership, boldness, self-control, self-discipline etc. To be an ideal citizen and a useful member of the society.

 

2. To counter the declining fitness trend,many schools and districts have taken a closer look at their physical education programmes. These programmes are recognizing the academic benefits of quality fitness programmes through varied exercises focusing on overall health of the children.

 

3. The current trend in physical education instruction has focussed less on fun and team sports and more on getting children healthy. Instructors have had to outline and define goals specific to increasing life-long health. They have identified three cores areas for focus : current fitness levels,educating health matters and teaching how to plan for long-term exercise. The first key is a focus on fitness. The overall quality of physical education classes has shifted from a fun release of energy to an increased scope of physical health.

 

Long answers:

 

1. Done

 

2. Done

 

3. B.P.E(Bachelor of physical education) : physical education teacher in school, fitness instructor etc., M.P.E(Master of physical education) : lecturer in senior secondary schools or in colleges etc. , M.S.S(Master of sports science) : lecturer in college etc. , NIS diploma (National institute of sports diploma in a specific game) : specific game coach in school, college, University, sports department etc.

 

CHAPTER-3 Class X- Physical Education

 

Very sorry answers:

 

1. It is classification of human body according to it's shape and physique. It was developed by W.H.Sheldon. He classified the human body in terms of three extreme body types : Endomorphic, Mesomorphic and Ectomorphic.

 

2. Ectomorph :- lean and long, with difficulty in building muscles.

Endomorph : big, high body fat, often pear-shaped, with a high tendency to store body fat.

Mesomorph : muscular and well-built, with a high metabolism and responsive muscle cells.

 

3. Done(explain in full)

 

4. Done(explain in full)

 

Match the following:

Sequence:

3, 1, 2, 4

 

Short answers:

 

1. W.H Sheldon (explain)

 

2. Done (explain in full)

 

3. Done (explain in full)

 

4. Done(explain in full)

 

Long answers:

 

1. Done(explain all three body types in full)

 

2. Done(explain both separately in full)

 

CHAPTER-4

 

Very short answers:

 

1. Acc. to David.R.Lamb,"Physical fitness is the capacity to meet the present and potential physical challenges of life with success."

 

2. It is the ability to produce force or ability of muscles to overcome resistance.

 

3. It is the combination of circulatory and respiratory system to provide continuous flow of energy for long work-out with slow speed. Helpful for long distance races, Football, Hockey etc.

 

4. It is the combination of strength, speed and endurance ability for long duration with high speed. Helpful for fast games, middle distance races, Badminton, Tennis etc.

 

5. Passive flexibility and

    Active flexibility (two types)

:-Static flexibility

:-Dynamic flexibility

 

6. It is the ability to overcome resistance with high speed. It provide forceful movement for short duration. Helpful for jumps,throws,power lifting etc.

 

Match the following:

Sequence:

2 , 4, 5, 6, 1, 3, 7

 

Short answers:

 

1. 

:-Total efficiency is improved

:-Better quality of work

:-Optimum growth and development

:-Better utilization of time

:-Healthy Environment

:-Good looking physique(explain all points)

 

2. Cardiovascular endurance, stamina and accuracy (explain all three)

 

3. Done(explain both separately)

 

4. Strength (done)

Types:

Static strength (also known as isometric strength. It is the ability to act against resistance from single position. Helpful for high power games like power lifting, pushing the wall etc.

:-Growth(It is the ability to overcome resistance with high speed. It provide forceful movement for short duration. Helpful for jumps, throws, power lifting etc.

 

5. Accuracy (It is the hitting the target to achieve goal or 100 percent perfection)

 

Balance (It is the ability to stay up-right or stay in control of the body movement on small place)

Two types of Balance:

 

Static Balance (It is balancing at ones stationary point)

 

Dynamic Balance (It is the ability to balance on moving point)

 

6. Parts of Speed:

 

Reaction Time(It is the time taken by the body to respond immediately after stimulus. It is the first reaction to bring the body into action)

 

Acceleration (It is the time taken by the body to reach to maximum speed)

 

Speed of Movement (It is the quickness of complete action or movement)

 

7. Football (Cardiovascular endurance),

Badminton (Stamina),

Long Jump (Power), 100m Sprint(Speed) and Gymnastics (Flexibility)

 

Long answers:

 

1. Done

 

2. Cardiovascular endurance, Stamina, strength, speed, flexibility, agility, balance and accuracy (explain all)

 

3. Stamina : It is the endurance where the anaerobic type of activity is done, when the intensity or speed is very fast. This endurance is for shorter duration and also known as muscular endurance as activity is performed in absence of oxygen with the help of stored energy in muscle glycogen. It produces a lot of fatigue and tiredness as it causes oxygen-debt. It is required for games and sports like Tennis, Badminton,Handball, Basketball, Volleyball, Middle distance races, Swimming etc.

 

Cardiovascular endurance : It is the endurance of aerobic nature where speed is slow. It delays fatigue,thus it is required for middle and long distance races like road cycling, cross-country, marathon race and it is required for almost all major games like Football, Hockey, Basketball, Handball etc.

 

4. Speed is the ability to perform movement at faster rate. It is basically dependent on heredity but can be improved through proper training. It depends upon the white muscle fibres(fast twitch). It is one of the important components for sprints(100m,200m and 400m) which can be measured through reflex test,short Sprint etc. 

 

It is of three types:

 

:-Reaction Time

:-Acceleration

:-Speed of Movement (explain all three)

 

5. Done(explain both separately)


HOME

 

Class X- History and Civics

Chapter 1 (history)

Question 1

What is the nature of the revolt of 1857

Answer:

According to british point of view it was sepoys’ mutiny but according to indian nationalists it was first war of independence.

Quetion 2

Why was the revolt os 1857 hailed as first war of independence?

Answer

People of different catses, communities and religions came together for the first time and fought for independence.

Question 3

Mention two political causes of the first war of independence

Answer

Two political causes are

1. The british policy of annexation of kingdoms under the pretext of inefficient administration of the rulers

2. The doctrine of lapse introduced by lord dalhousie that imposed unisentimental law of no adoption policy for the rulers and lapse of kingdom into the hands of british in the absence of natural heir.

Question 4

Name two ways in which the british expanded their territorial power in india.

Answer:

1. British got right to diwani in 1765.

2. Doctrine of lapse.

3. Subsidiary allaince.

4. On the pretext of alleged misrule.

5. By outright wars

Question 5.

What is subsidiary allaince? Name the states annexed with the help of it.

Answer .

It was an agreement between the british east india company and the indian princely states by virtueof which these states lost their sovereignty to the british. Under this system, the indian rulers, who agreed to the subsidiary allaince.

1. Accepted the british as the supreme power

2. Agreed to maintain british troops at thier own cost

Hyderabad and mysore were the two states.

Question 6.

Explain the term doctrine of lapse. Name the two states annexed under this policy.

Answer

Policy of doctrine of lapse was followed by lord dalhousie. The doctrine meant that when a ruler of a dependent state died without a natural heir, the state is passed on to the english- company. States annexed were sambhalpur, nagpur, udaypur.

Question 7.

Who was nana saheb?what was his main grievance against british?

Answer

Nana saheb was the adopted son of Baji Rao II, the last peshwa the british refused to accept nana saheb, the adopted son as the last peshwa baji rao II as the ruler of the maratha and was refused to give the pension which his father was getting.

Question 8

Which policy was used against rani laxmi bai? Why rani luxmi became bitter enemy?

Answer:

The policy used against rani luxmi bai was doctrine of lapse. Rani luxmi bai became bitter enemy of british because her adopted son anand rao was not recognised as a lawful successor to the throne.

Question 9

State two anouncement which adveresly affected mughal empire?

Answer:

1. The successors of bahadur shah would not be permitted to use the red fort as thier palace.

2. The successors of bahadur shah would not be permitted to use the imperial title of mughal emperor

Question 10

Mention any two consequences of awadh annexation

Answer:

1. Several officials and soldiers lost thier jobs which brought unemployment.

2. The british took away lands from the taluqdars. These taluqdars became firm opponents of the british

Question 11

State any two cosequences of the dibanding of the armies of the annexed states.

Answer:

1.It brought large scale unemploment.

2. It also gave rise to poverty as large no. Of families got effected.

3. the people of awadh had to pay higher land revenue and additional taxes on food, houses, ferries and justice.

Question 12

Give the meaning of absentee sovereignty. Why was it resented by the idians?

Answer:

It means that india was being ruled by the british government from england, at a distance of thousands of miles.

The indians felt the india’s wealth was being drained to england and not utilised for their welfare.

Question 13

What were the apprehensions of indians about the introduction of the railways?

Answer:

It was looked down uponas a means to break social order and caste rules.people of all castes has to sit together in railway compartments. This was regarded as an attempt to interfere with the caste rules.

Question 14

Mention any two social reforms advocated by the british which affected the religion traditions of the indian people.

Answer:

Sati system and no permission to widow remarriage was prevailing in the society.

The british government passed the widow re marriage act in 1856 and sati system was defeated illegal by passing an act.

Question15

Mention any two measures which point to the policy of social discrimination followed by the british in india.

Answer:

1. British continued their policy of divide and rule

2. They believed in their racial superiority and they thought that a distance was maintained to preserve their authority over indians

3. They clearly used the attraction of the government service to create a split along religious lines among educated indians.

Question 16

Give two example to show how the british exploited resources of india.

Answer:

India was forced to export at cheaper rates raw materials like raw cotton and raw silk as duty free to british industries.

All trade and commerce had gone into the hands of the english.

Question 17

Give any two grievances of the peasantry against the british?
Answer:

1. The peasants were discontented with the official land revenue policy.

2. It was the peasantry that bore the heavy burden of exorbitant taxes to provide money for the trade and profits of the company.

Question 18

What did british do to reduce the landed aristocracy to poverty?

Answer:

1. Economic exploitation

2. Decay of indigenous industries

3. High taxation

4. The drain of wealth

5. Stagnation of agriculture

Question 19

General service enlistment act and provision that resented the indian soldiers

Answer:

This act hurt the sentiments of sepoys because according to the current religious beliefs of the hindus, travel across the seas was considered a sin. This act cause great resentment in the minds of the personnel of the begngal army.

Question 20

Mention any two grievances harboured by the indian soldiers which created an atmosphere favourable to the first war of independence.

Answer:

1. All higher posts were reserved for british in employment.

2. An indian soldier could not rise above the rank of subedar.

3. Indian soldier were required to serve in areas away from their homes without extra and additional bhatta.

Question 21.

Impact of defeat of british in first afghan war.

Answer:

The defeat in the first afghan war increased the self confidence of the indian soldiers, who felt, they could challenge the britain in india too.

Question 22

Immediate cause of the revolt of 1857.

Answer:

The immediate cause of the uprising was the use of greased cartridges in the rifles after biting the end of cartridge with their teeth. It was thought that the cartridges were greased with the fats of cow and pig. So both hindu and muslim soldiers refused to use these cartridges.

Question 23

Mangal pandey?

Answer:

Mangal pandey was a brahmin soldier, who refused to use the greased cartridges on 29th march, 1857 and killed two english officers. He was hanged consequently, this resulted in general uprising in meerut, delhi, kanpur, lucknow and jhansi.

Question 24

What was the result of indian independence on the east india company?

Answer:

The first war of independence ended the east india company’s rule in india since the british statesmen thought it unwise to leave the government of vast country in the hands of private trading company.

Question 25

How was the army organised after the first war of independence?

Answer:

The portion of british indian soldiers was increased and different castes and creeds were mixed to avoid any other revolt.

Question 26.

Imapct of revolt of 1857 on peshwaship and mughal rule.

Answer :

1. With the death of bahadur shah II the mughal dynasty came to an end.

2. Nana saheb, the last peshwa had taken part in the uprising and had to flee to nepal after the failure of the uprising. So the office of peshwa also came to an end.

Question 27.

Mention any two drawbacks of the first war of independence.

Answer:

1. Lack of common plans

2. Lack of leadership

lass - x   Geography

SOIL RESOURCES IN INDIA  [10 class]

 

Ans 1: Soil is formed under specific natural conditions. It is a mixture of minerals or inorganic matter which result from denudation and disintigration of rocks.

Ans 2 : Soil formation is related to the parent rock material, relief, climate and vegetation. Animals insects and man also play an important role in the formation of soil.

Ans 3 : soil is a mixture of inorganic material , minerals and organic material like humus.Inorganic components like silica,clay and chalk.

Ans 4 :The major soils are alluvial soils,black soils and red soils.

Ans 5 :Alluvial soils are very fertile because every year fresh sediments are deposited by rivers.

Ans 6 :Black soils are formed in situ i.e, formed where they are found.They are called residual soil. These soils have originated from solidification of basic lava spread over large area of deccan pleateau during volcanic activity.

Ans 7 : No black soil doesnot undergo leaching.

Ans 8 : The other name of black soils are Regur and black cotton soils

Characteristics :

1: Retains moisture and becomes sticky when wet .

2: Releases moisture during dry period.

Ans 9 : Red soil are not suitable for agriculture because it lacks lime,magnesia,phosphate,nitrogen and humus and are rich in potash and become fertile with proper use of fertilizers and irrigation

Ans   10 Leaching is a process in which the mineral nutrients are washed away making the top soil infertile. The example of a leached soil is laterite soil

Ans 11:Alluvial soil is widely distributed over the ganga basin.

Ans 12 : The most widely transported soil is the alluvial soil.

Ans 13 : Laterite soil is suitable for growing coffee in india .

Ans 14: Laterite soil is found on the summit of eastern ghats.

Ans 15: Mountain soil is rich in humus but deficient in phosphate ,potash and lime .

Ans 16: Desert soil is found in thse area which receive rainfall below 50 cm features.It contains low percentage of organic matter due to dry climate and absence of vegetation.Soil is alkaline is nature as there is no rainfall to wash soluble salt.

Ans 17 : Laterite soils are formed under condition of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry period.

Ans 18 : Monsoon condition promote leaching of the soil i.e the heavy rainfall washes away the top soil containing silica.

Ans 19: Soil erosion is the removal of the top soil by different agents like wind and water.

Types :

[1] Splash erosion

[2] Sheet erosion

[3] Gully erosion

Ans 20 : Soil conservation is an effort made to prevent soil erosion or reduce the rate of soil erosion.

Ways to reduce erosion:

Aforestation, to check overgrazing and constructing dams and barrages.

Ans 21 : [1] Top soil –it is the uppermost layer of soil consisting of humus which is very fertile.

[2] In situ-the soil formed where they are found.

[3] Bhanger-it consist of old alluvium,contains kankar, pebbles and gravels and are dark in colour.

[4] Khadar-it consist of new alluvial,contain fine sand and clay and are pale brown in colour.

[5] Humus- it is dark organic material in soils produced by the decomposition of vegetables or animal matter and is essential to the  fertility of the soil.

 

Class - X   BIOLOGY

D. Long answer type

1.Due to the shortage of water the leaves droop down and loose their turgidity.This flaccid condition of leaves is called wilting. Some plants show wilting of their leaves at noon even when the soil is well watered because the rate of transpiration at that time is higher than the rate of absorption of water by the roots.

 

2.The stomata in most plants are more numerous on the lower surface of a leaf instead of being on the upper surface because lower surface is less exposed to sunlight as compared to upper surface.

 

3. Cover a potted rose plant.With a transparent polythene bag tied its mouth around the base of the stem of the plant in sunlight for an hour or two.Drops of water will soon appear on the inner side of the bag due to saturation of water vapour given out by the leaves.A similar empty polythene bag with its mouth tied and kept in sunlight will show no drops of water.This is a control to show that plants transpire water. Therefore this experiment demonstrate transpiration in rose plant.(Diagram is on page no.55,fig.5.1)

 

4. Photometer is a device which measures the rate of water intake by a plant,and this water intake is almost equal to the water lost through transpiration.

 

5.Lenticular transpiration is the transpiration which occurs through lenticels which are present on the old green stems of the plant. These are the minute openings which remain open all the time.

LENTICULAR TRANSPIRATION

a.It occurs through lenticels.

b. The amount of lenticular transpiration is very small.

STOMATAL TRANSPIRATION

a.It occurs through stomata.

b.the amount of stomatal transpiration is very large.

 

6.(a)The intensity of sunlight

(b) temperature

(c) velocity of wind

 

7.The huge quantities of water released into the atmosphere by stretches of fields and particularly forests through transpiration, which increases the moisture in the atmosphere and brings rain.

 

8.No,these are not the dew drops.These drops are actually the water drops which are coming out from the margins of the leaves in humid conditions due to the less rate of transpiration and excess amount of water present in the plant body.

 

9.(a)The rate of transpiration is directly affected by intensity of light.If the intensity of light is more the rate of transpiration will be more,if the intensity of light is less the rate of transpiration will be less.

 

(b)The rate of transpiration is inversely proportional to humidity.If the humidity is high the rate of transpiration will be less and if the humidity is less in the atmosphere, then the transpiration will be more.

 

E. Structured/Application Skill Type

 

1.(i) left uncoated because  in this leaf transpiration occurs from both surfaces so it will be the most limp.

(ii) coated on both surfacesbecause both the sides of the leaf is covered by Vaseline so it shows least limping.

 

2(a) Transpiration

(b)To prevent evaporation from the surface of water.

(c)To measure the amount of lost water during transpiration.

(d) yes more rate of transpiration will be their. Inshot more loss of weight of plant.

3.(a) Ganong's photometer

Transpiration

Exercise A multiple choice type
Solutions
1(a) open stomata, dry atmosphere and moist soil
2(a) increase
3(d) atmosphere is dry and temperature is high
4(c) sunken stomata
5(d) hydathodes
6(d) transpiration
7(d) hot,dry and windy
8(a) stomata
9(c) loss of water, as water vapour, by a plant.

Exercise B
Very short answer type
1 Name the following:
(a) lenticels
(b) guttation
(c) potometer
(d) nerium
(e) ganong's potometer
(f) cuticle, stomata
(g) hydathodes
(h) guttation

2 fill in the blanks:
(a) vapour, aerial
(b) stomata, transpiration
(c) suction, water

C short answer type


1 functional activity
(a) hydathodes and guttation
(b) leaf spines and reduced transpiration
(c) lenticels and lenticular transpiration/diffusion of gases
(d) xylem and conduction of water

2(a)true or false
(1) false
Most transpiration occurs at midday
(2) true
(3) true
(4) false
Potometer is an instrument used for measuring the rate of transpiration in green plants.

3 Give suitable explanation for the following:
(a) Higher rate of transpiration is recorded on a windy day rather than on a calm day because transpiration increases with the velocity of wind. If the wind blows faster,the water vapour released during transpiration is removed faster and the area outside the leaf does not get saturated with water vapour.

(b) Excessive transpiration results in the wilting of leaves because the rate of transpiration exceeds the rate of absorption of water by the roots. Hence the cells lose turgidity.

(c) Out of total water absorbed by plants only a small quantity of this water is used by the plant in photosynthesis and other activities.The rest of it is almost lost to the atmosphere as water vapour as a result of transpiration. So, water transpired is the water absorbed.

(d) More transpiration occurs from the lower surface of a dorsiventral leaf because in a dorsiventral leaf more stomata are present on the lower surface as compared to upper surface.

(e) Cork and bark are made up of flattened dead cells with fatty substance which is impermeable to water and gases and thereby, help in preventing loss of water.

(f) Transpiration is a process in which water evaporates from a plant specially through the stomata of the leaves.In this way transpiration helps to low down the temperature of the plant in hot weather.When the body temperature rises sweat glands excrete small amount of water along with urea and salts to the surface of skin and it also cools the body by evaporation.So in this way perspiration and transpiration helps to cool the body temperature of the organism.

(g)On a bright sunny day the leaves of certain plants roll up because the rate of transpiration exceeds the rate of absorption of water by roots.

4 true or false
(a) true
Because potometer is attached by a leaf shoot which contains numerous stomata.
(b) true
Because both are the pores on plant body through which transpiration occurs.
(c) false
Because if humidity is high then transpiration is less and vice versa.
(d) true
Because it is an adaptation of plant to reduce transpiration.
(e) true
Because at that time the intensity of sunlight is more which favours transpiration.

5 Differentiate between guttation and bleeding
GUTTATION
1 It is a loss of water as droplets along the margins of leaves.
2 It occurs through hydathodes found at the end of veins.
BLEEDING
1 It is the direct flowing out of plant sap.
2 It occurs from the ruptured or cut surfaces of a plant.

 

Class - x   English language                                     


Total English -10


Chapter -1 is solved in the book
Chapter-2
Q.5 (a)1.was affected

2.made
3.fermented
4.became
5.working
6.converts
7.turns
8.packs
b) 1.up
2.of
3.away
4.in
5.into
6.over
7.after
8.for

c)1. The examination had begun before we reached the hall.
2.I don't care whether Manav join me or not.
3. As it is very cold,we can't wear cotton clothes.
4.Since you helped him ,he will be grateful to you.

d)1.Hardly had the train arrived when all rushed into the compartments.
2.There was a collision between a bus and a car.
3.How long can I bear it?
4.You cannot come with us for the picnic unless your father permits you.
5.We had never met each other since 2009.
6.The Commander ordered the soldiers not to give up and march on.
7.Put your tools away lest people should fall over them.
8.I wish I had been appointed to the post.
Chapter-3
Q.5.
a)1.doubled
2.shows
3.generated
4.was processed
5.compared
6.worst
7.collected
8.treated
b) 1.by
2.into
3.with
4.away
5.about
6.up
7.away
8.towards
c)1.As it was very hot I could not go out.
2.The room is too small to accommodate all of us.
3.The book that I borrowed from my neighbour is good.
4.Aditi was too terrified to speak

d)1. I suggested to my sister that we should go to the market the next day for shopping.
2.As he is poor,he cannot afford such expensive treatment.
3. Inspite of being rich man, he is not proud.
4.Bina inherited a big fortune from her father.
5.He pleaded for his ignorance of law.
6.It is believed that he was involved in the crime.
7.I wish I had taken my doctor's advice.
8.He not only passed the examination well but also won the first prize.
Chapter-4
Q.5 a)1.wants
2.disposal
3.adopted
4.mandated
5.will give
6.bringing
7.stopped
8.have seen that

b) 1. Under
2.down
3.after
4.over
5.on
6.up
7.for
8.without

c)1. Ankita as well as Kalyani is pretty.
2.Everybody knows that the shopkeeper is cunning.
3.I do not know why he is not coming to school.
4.He is poor however not a cheat.

d)1.Tagore was one of the most famous artists.
2.Unless you tell the truth ,you will be punished.
3.He asked if he might have a cup of milk.
4.If he is given some more time,he will complete this work by tomorrow.
5.We organised a function so that we may raise funds for the school.
6.Who has not heard of the Quit India Movement?
7.I prefer small towns to big cities.
8.Inspite of being too young she was appointed by them.
Chapter-5
Q.5 a)1.to control
2.published
3.shows
4. cools
5.are created
6.aid
7.understanding
8.help

b)1.on
2.by
3.aside/away
4.forth
5.through
6.on
7.up
8.under

c)1.I would not have completed the task but for Anu's help.
2.Mr Khosla cannot be late as he is punctual.
3.Kindly tell me why you did not complete your project.
4.We will wait for you till you come back.

d)1.The police not only kept a watch on his movements but also tapped his phones.
2.Everyone will admit that she is honest.
3.If you had not helped me I would not have succeeded.
4.He spent his whole life here since his birth.
5.The principal said,"I will look into the case."
6.Inspite of knowing him for long,I have not developed respect for him
7.John did not understand why Anita was annoyed with him.
8.Tom can run faster than anybody else in our team.

 

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